Actually the concept is pretty foreign to the Old Testament. There is actually a Hebrew word that is "satan" but it simply refers to a "stumbling block" or "adversary". The term is used to describe humans and other physical objects, etc, etc. The term is never used a spiritual being in the dark realm. Instead whenever reference is made to such a spiritual being he is seen as in the courts of the LORD Almighty.
I agree with you that Satan or THE DEVIL was not in the Garden.
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2007-11-08 07:41:51
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Hope this helps...Adam was told by God Not to eat from a distintive tree. He disobeyed and listened to Eve. They were given everything in the Garden, Except that particular tree and it was a metaphor. Indicating it was not profitable to them to become gods... Matthew 21:19, Mark 4:7.
Isaiah 14:12. Even then the serpent represented a deciever and is a description of the character of his nature and apparently walked upright, Before he decieved Adam and Eve. Isaiah is addressing the Fall and rebellion that must have occured before they were Ceated. You cannot look at Scripture of the Old Testament as a timeline of events.
The New Testament also describes him as the Beast, Daniel 11:37, Revelation 12:10, Always accusing the saints, Revelation 13 the Serpent of old, dragon, also called the demons men of old Genesis 6:4 all male.
There are 17 Scripture references to Hell. Deuteronomy 32:22, 2nd Samuel 22:6, Job 11:8, Job 26:6, Psalm 9:17, Psalm 16:10, Psalms 18:5, Psalm 55:5, Psalm 86:13, Psalm 116:3, Psalm 139:8, Proverbs 5:5, Proverbs 7:27, Proverbs 9:18, Proverbs 15:11, Proverbs 15:24, Proverbs 23:14, Proverbs 27:20, Isaiah5:14, Isaiah 14:9, Isaiah 14:15, Isaiah 28:15,18, Isaiah 57:9, Ezekiel 31:16,17, Ezekiel 32:21, 27, Amos (:2, Johah 2:2, Habbakuk 2:5, Jesus Matthew 5:22, 29, 30,Matthew 10:28, Matthew 11:23, Matthew 16:18, Matthew 18:9, Matthew 23:15,23, Mark 9:43,45, 47,Luke 10:15, Luke 12:5, Luke 16:23, Acts 2:27, 31,James 3:6, 2nd Peter 2:4, Revelation 1:18, Revelation 6:8, Revelation 20:13, 14,
2007-11-08 07:57:36
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answer #2
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answered by ShadowCat 6
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Well, lets see... The Old Testament was written in a language called Hebrew. The last Hebrew writings in it were completed in about 500 BC. The word "Hell" does not exist in the Hebrew language. It comes from a language called Greek. The Greek language did not become common until around the 300-250's BC, more than two centuries after the Old Testament Hebrew scriptures were completed. So the Jews would not have known that word existed to be able to use it in their writings. KInd of like asking why the English word "God" does not appear in the original languages manuscripts of both the Old and New Testament. Because the word did not exist yet.However the concept of "God" is clearly found in both the OT and the NT, and so various words are translated as "God" in the English Bible. The word "Hell" did not exist when the OT was written but the CONCEPT is found in the OT. As such, there are several OT passages where the words are translated as "Hell" in th English Bible because that is our word for that concept. Not that difficult of a concept.
2016-04-03 02:21:33
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answer #3
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answered by ? 4
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Satan is a central character in the book of Job, which is thought to be the oldest book in the Old Testament. Here Satan is depicted as a prosecutor in a courtroom, not as the demonic personification of pure evil. The theology of Job seems to be that Satan is God's creation to tempt humanity away from God on purpose (there has to be something else for us to choose, else we don't have free will, ergo Satan is part of the design in Job).
He doesn't appear again until Jesus is tempted by him and says he saw Satan fall like lightning, a reference to OT passages about the King of Tyre often interpreted to refer to Lucifer/Satan.
Interestingly, Lucifer is never mentioned at all anywhere, there is an improper reference to the bringer of light, in Latin luxe ferre, also euphamized as the morningstar. Which is what we call Jesus.
2007-11-08 07:40:38
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes In the book of Job satan is mentioned several times. Also in Chronicles the bible says satan tempted David to take a census. And again in Ezekial satan is referred to as lucifer. And if the serpent didn't do anything evil why did God put a curse on him?
2007-11-08 07:38:55
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answer #5
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answered by JesusIsTheAnswer 4
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Satan, or Lucifer, is mentioned in Job. There isn't much mention of hell (or heaven) in the OT. David, however, when his infant child died, said "He cannot return to me, but I will go to him."
And by the way, the serpent in the Garden of Eden used guile and deception to convince Eve to disobey God, so he was not without fault, and he was not just a serpent. Read Genesis chapter 3.
2007-11-08 07:44:24
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answer #6
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answered by David S 5
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In Hebrew, the word 'satan' actually means 'adversary'. In Judaism, we don't have a single evil entity, in the way that Christianity does. There are references to wicked spirits and demons and things, but there is more attention given to the 'evil impulse' within man and how to avoid it and control it.
We also don't have a concept of hell which corresponds to the Christian version. Certainly, no eternal fire and brimstone! Rather, hell is a kind of limbo, involving distance from G-d, where the soul is 'cleansed'. It is not portrayed as being remotely pleasant, though.
Hope that helps a bit.
2007-11-08 07:39:16
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Satan is mentioned in Job 1:6; also in Zechariah 3:2.
2007-11-08 07:39:49
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answer #8
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answered by Averell A 7
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In Hebrew, "satan" means "adversary." The word appears numerous times in the OT (the book of Job is a good starting place), but it is refering to a type of being, not a proper name of a specific being. The Jewish satan/adversary works for God, tempting people to stray away rom God to prove whose faith is resolute.
Whether you find a mention of Hell in the OT may depend on the translation. Some Bibles translate Sheol into Hell, which is really imprecise, as Sheol is very roughly "the common grave of mankind." (There's really no English equivelent, hence the translation problem) There is mention of "hellfire," whatever THAT means. (possibly in Isaiah, but I'm unsure)
2007-11-08 07:42:57
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answer #9
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answered by Nightwind 7
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Depends on the translation you read. Originally, many mentions of "satan" used the Hebrew word for "adversary", which could just as easily mean one's own selfishness or unholy thoughts/parts of your soul. Doesn't necessarily refer to an entity that commits evil acts, such as the "satan" of most Christian traditions.
There is no direct evidence of Satan anywhere. It has all been created in one way or another by man. If he exists, there's as much evidence of it as there is of the existence of a god.
2007-11-08 08:42:21
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answer #10
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answered by Katie Short, Atheati Princess 6
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