English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Am I just not reading this table correctly?

http://www.truthandpolitics.org/top-rates.php

Will someone please explain.

2007-11-07 07:40:09 · 4 answers · asked by pokerstarsacct1987 1 in Business & Finance Taxes United States

4 answers

You are reading that 100% correctly. It was lowered during LBJ's time but it wasnt until Reagan that lowered it to 50%. He was the one that said that when he was making movies, that he would only make two per year because if he made a third, 90% of his pay would have gone to the govt. Real productive.... hence our lowering that rate to 35% today.

2007-11-07 07:46:25 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There was a 90% top rate at one time. It might have been 1944, but continued long after that - I remember it, and wouldn't have in 1944 since I was just a baby. It only affected the highest income group though.

2007-11-07 18:13:05 · answer #2 · answered by Judy 7 · 0 0

Keep in mind that very few people made over $200,000 in 1944 so the number of people effected by this rate was small and, as it is a marginal tax rate, only the income above $200,000 was taxed at this rate.

2007-11-07 15:46:29 · answer #3 · answered by Wayne Z 7 · 2 0

The country was at war. The government was grabbing all the revenue it could. Their was patriotic fever and a widespread belief that nobody should be profiting from the war.

2007-11-07 15:43:47 · answer #4 · answered by zxdfmlp 3 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers