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The one who gives to the poor because of a belief in G-d?

or

The one who gives to the poor without a belief in G-d?

Is it really possible to say one of these is a believer and the other is not? (In Judaism, believing has the context of doing what is taught.)

2007-11-07 02:47:42 · 15 answers · asked by Gershon b 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

The one who gives to the poor because of a belief in G-d?

or

The one who gives to the poor without a belief in G-d?

Is it really possible to say one of these is a believer and the other is not? (In Judaism, believing has the context of doing what is taught.)

Jews don't spell out the name of G-d as there is an obscure command not to erase the name. It really wouldn't apply to the word G-d as that isn't the divine name, but many Jews still don't write it out.

Some very interesting responses so far.

2007-11-07 03:08:24 · update #1

15 answers

To clarify, one is obligated to help the poor in Judaism and Judaism teaches that one who does something because one is obligated has more merit than one who does the same thing on one's own.

Both are meritorious. Keeping score over who trumps who is a futile exercise.

2007-11-07 02:52:52 · answer #1 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 2 0

Probably somewhat irrelevant, since few people do either. I suspect feeding the poor based on a motivation of pleasing Lilith, queen of the demons still probably gleans more appreciation from the almighty than most of our behavior. BTW even Paul Tillich (a great Theologian) would say we reduce God the moment we say the word “God.” Any language or symbology (such as religion) diminishes that which you are addressing.

2007-11-07 02:55:20 · answer #2 · answered by Adam L 1 · 1 0

Depends on what religion you believe in i suppose.

Personally i see no difference.
Both are doing good.
Both are motivared by good.

You might say the believer in god is doing it for a "alterior motive" but i dont buy that.

You might be interested in how the Chinese philosphers have discussed this problem. The divergence between action and intention. They are the Legalist, the Mohist, the Taoist and the Confucians.

2007-11-07 02:53:34 · answer #3 · answered by Menon R 4 · 2 0

bongernet... You're the ignant one. Could be he's Jewish, and spelling out the name is a no-no..

The one who follows G-d's law without fear of G-D, the one who doesn't believe because he gives from the heart, and the other because it is required.

And only G-D can tell them apart.

Edit: mzJakes (below): Ahhh.. I see. I think I like my version better, worth looking at that more closely though. Interesting thought process there to explore....

2007-11-07 02:52:43 · answer #4 · answered by reallyboredlurker 2 · 1 0

In my opinion both are of equal merit if it is true charity that inspires both good works. However, in our Christian belief, if the act of giving is not from a genuinely charitable disposition, the merit has been paid for by the esteem given by people.

2007-11-07 02:59:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Very interesting question if I do say so myself. I will have to go with one who gives to the poor because of a belief in God. If you give to the poor and believe in God you are doing it out of love and obedience to God FIRST. An unbeliever is not doing it to please God but just to do a good work. If this sounds judgmental please forgive me. I am just trying to validate picking between the two.

2007-11-07 02:53:20 · answer #6 · answered by Kaliko 6 · 2 0

I'm fascinated by Kaliko's answer. By her logic, a person who obeys a command to carry out a Good action is more meritorious than one who carries out the action out of his own sense of Rightness.

This appears to raise obedience over merit. What kind of slave mentality would support that?

CD

2007-11-07 02:59:48 · answer #7 · answered by Super Atheist 7 · 0 0

The Christian Bible also tell us to be a doer of the Word, not just a hearer of It.

Show me your works and I’ll show you your faith.

Just curious: Why do you write "G-d" instead of "God"? Is it because God is not His Sacred Name?

I Am That I Am

2007-11-07 02:54:33 · answer #8 · answered by David G 6 · 0 0

Acts 17:31 - Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead.

2007-11-07 02:51:40 · answer #9 · answered by just a man 4 · 0 1

helping the poor is a good thing, whether it is your idea or whether you do it because some invisible man in the sky told you to.

2007-11-07 02:51:46 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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