Where does in the Bible Jesus say 'I am God, Worship me?

Answer 1

Jesus never makes that specific demand, but Thomas makes that connection, and Jesus doesn't object. (John 20:28). But remember, the Church pre-dates the Bible, therefore, the Church did not spring forth out of the Bible, but Jesus himself.

Answer 2

Very simple the same bible that have John 1:1 says in Job 1:6 and 2:1 that all angels are sons of God .

The same bible says that all the sons of God are gods (Psalms 82:1 and verse 6)

So if Jesus is a son of God according to John 3:16 then he could be an angel and still is a god.

but that is not all

the same bible says that the voice of Jesus is the voice of Archangel , why he has a voice of Archangel if he is not an archangel (By the way there is only one). in 1 Thessal 4:16

about Michael archangel the same bible says in Daniel 12:1 that is the great prince that will bring a great tribulation and will resurrect people that are dead in the future. why the bible says about an angel something that only Jesus does?

why the bible describe in Revelation 10:1-3 a powerful angel that match in every gingle detail with Jesus?

and why the bible call Jesus the angel of covenant in the book of Malachi?

Why Jesus was among the angels if he doesn´t belongs to that group? he is the higher one but God almighty talked wtih him when he was among the rest of the sons of God, by the way the bible call him the firstson in Colossians 1:15-17.

AT JOHN 8:58 a number of translations, for instance The Jerusalem Bible, have Jesus saying: "Before Abraham ever was, I Am." Was Jesus there teaching, as Trinitarians assert, that he was known by the title "I Am"? And, as they claim, does this mean that he was Jehovah of the Hebrew Scriptures, since the King James Version at Exodus 3:14 states: "God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM"?

At Exodus 3:14 (KJ) the phrase "I AM" is used as a title for God to indicate that he really existed and would do what he promised. The Pentateuch and Haftorahs, edited by Dr. J. H. Hertz, says of the phrase: "To the Israelites in bondage, the meaning would be, 'Although He has not yet displayed His power towards you, He will do so; He is eternal and will certainly redeem you.' Most moderns follow Rashi [a French Bible and Talmud commentator] in rendering [Exodus 3:14] 'I will be what I will be.'"

The expression at John 8:58 is quite different from the one used at Exodus 3:14. Jesus did not use it as a name or a title but as a means of explaining his prehuman existence. Hence, note how some other Bible versions render John 8:58

Jesus is god but he is not Jehovah the almighty God according to John 14:28 unless Jesus lies to us and he is equal to his father.

Answer 3

He accepted worship from those who worshiped him. So ipso facto, he did not deny those people the chance to worship him.

And then there is the fact that in Psalm 45 and Hebrews 1 that God calls Jesus God. So . . . . maybe you missed those.

Answer 4

Joh 4:19 The woman saith unto him, Sir, I perceive that thou art a prophet.
Joh 4:20 Our fathers worshipped in this mountain; and ye say, that in Jerusalem is the place where men ought to worship.
Joh 4:21 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father.
Joh 4:22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.
Joh 4:23 But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.
Joh 4:24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.
Joh 4:25 The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things.
Joh 4:26 Jesus saith unto her, I that speak unto thee am he.

Answer 5

it doesn't!