Did Mary's husband filed for divorce?
2007-11-05 06:42:37 · 19 answers · asked by I Speak the Truth 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Could we expect to see God and Joseph on the Maury show with the paternity test to see who's the father of baby Jesus?
2007-11-05 06:48:36 · update #1
No, God just has to stick it in ya ;)
2007-11-05 17:29:20 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was not married at the time of the conception....
Matthew 1:18 (NIV version because more people understand this version) says "This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit."
In fact, after hearing Mary was pregnant, Joseph was going to end the engagement and not get married, believing Mary had been defiled and had had sex with another man, but he was informed that she was carrying the child of the Holy Ghost, so it was not as a result of her having bedded with anyone.
Matthew 1:19 Because Joseph her husband was a righteous man and did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly.
Mat 1:20 But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, “Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.
Mat 1:21 She will give birth to a son, and you are to give him the name Jesus, because he will save his people from their sins.”
Mat 1:22 All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet:
Mat 1:23 “The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel”–which means, “God with us.”
Mat 1:24 When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife.
Mat 1:25 But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.
So, they did not consummate the marriage until after Jesus was born, and Joseph reconsidered getting a divorce because it was the Holy baby, the seed as had been prophesied.
2007-11-05 06:53:43 · answer #2 · answered by sirburd 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As mentioned, Mary was not married at the time of her conception. However, she was engaged, and Joseph did mean to divorce her. An angel appeared to him and commanded him not to do so because she was still a virgin - her pregnancy was accomplished without sex (i.e. without violating her virginity).
Of course, there is no need for a paternity test, as Joseph had not had sex with Mary prior to his learning of her pregnancy. Since he was informed in person by an angel who the father of the child was, as was Mary, neither had any need for such a test.
Jim, http://www.life-after-harry-potter.com
2007-11-05 07:01:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
First off Mary was not married to Joseph when Jesus was Placed in the womb, and thier was no act of sin committed, Jesus was placed in Marys womb by The Spirit, Jesus could not be born into sin, Jesus had to be spotless, and sinless as a lamb.
2007-11-05 06:58:08 · answer #4 · answered by Lynn C 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, Joseph and Mary remained in a virginal relationship. Besides, we all are to be one with God. Marraige is a actually symbolic of God's love for his people. God united with the soul is the ultimate union with the soul in heaven, and is distinct from marraige. And God's union with Mary is distinct as well as unique.
2007-11-05 06:55:47 · answer #5 · answered by Ed H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How did all of us understand you ought to pickle a cucumber and then call it a pickle, yet you are able to pickle different issues, yet we don't call the pickles. have been cucumbers the 1st ingredient we pickled and then known because it a pickle, yet study to pickle different issues yet have already got something we call a pickle , so we don't understand what to call those new pickled issues and whew! i think of I certainly have a head soreness, do you. no longer from the pickle ingredient however the great Mary God ingredient. Is it a sin to consume a pickle while it may be referred to as a pickled cucmber, like all the different pickled issues. That replaced into exciting for me replaced into it exciting for you? enable's do it lower back sometime with our socks off. Or on.
2016-10-15 03:28:13 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was engaged to Joseph at the time.
2007-11-05 06:47:58 · answer #7 · answered by Michael M 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No, it's the other way around, Mary was to be married to Joseph; Technically they were married in everything but the sleeping arrangements. So the immaculate conception was the adulterous affair.
2007-11-05 06:48:56 · answer #8 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Well, u got a heated match going on..
How could u commit adultery.. if u didn't have sex???
she never had sex with God .... !!!!
I would bet u are a religious person.. or at least know more about this than most people ans'ing this question????
2007-11-05 14:29:15 · answer #9 · answered by ♥ Blondie ♥ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If I remember the bible correctly, Mary and Joseph weren't married yet when she became pregnant. She was "supposed" to be a virgin. Which explains a lot when it comes to Jesus....why they claimed he was gods child and such. Honestly, think about it..... How could the bible writers claim he was so "great" if everyone knew his mom slept around when she was about to be married... etc etc.
2007-11-05 06:46:57 · answer #10 · answered by I, Sapient 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
When the god did Mary, she was not yet married to Joseph. Once they did the deed, god persuaded Joseph to marry her.
Since god jumped before wedlock, it wasn't considered adultery.
2007-11-05 06:48:40 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋