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Why don't Jews believe in jesus Christ? doesn't he fulfill the prophecies of the old testament? for example.. Isaiah 53
" surely he has borne our greifs and carried our sorrows; yet we esteemed Him stricken, smitten by God, and afflicted. But he was peirced through for our transgressions: he was bruised for our inquities"..........this is just a part of Isaiah 53 but doesn't this provide sound proof for jesus Christ being the Messiah? What would another Messiah do differently? thanks for your answers..

2007-11-04 16:15:49 · 7 answers · asked by JpCreation101 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

When you ask about "Jews" you mean the rabbinic Jews, the traditional not the Biblical Jew, the one who follows the Talmud and the Midrash and other rabbis who wrote things that are NOT in the Old Testament.

The (T)e(N)a(K)h-the Old Testament, is called such because it is the book of the (T)orah-the Laws, the (N)evi'im, the Prophets and the (K)etuvim-the Writings of histories and Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesastes, etc.

Burt, who are rabbis and rabbinic Jews? Why did Jesus speak about scribes and Pharisees being hypocrites? Why did Jesus in Matthew 5:17 say He had not come to abolish the Law OR THE PROPHETS, but to fulfill them, and not just speak of the Law?

To understand this, one has to go back to the Books of the Torah-the first 5 Books of the Old testament-and look throughout Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy to see how HaShem SEPARATED Aaron, son of Levi, and his sons and their followers, and made them the high priests. HaShem (G-D) ordained they would not inherit the Promised Land, because they were to get something even greater, in Numbers 18:20 "The Lord said to Aaron, 'You will have no inheritance in their land, nor will you have any share among them; I am your share and your inheritance among the Israelites."

These Separated ones, the Levites, would receive the wealth, the tithes, the crops, all the riches, but there was a price they would pay..." Num 18:1 The Lord said to Aaron, "You, your sons and your father's family are to bear the responsibility for offenses against the sanctuary, and you and your sons alone are to bear the responsibility for offenses against the priesthood."

So, the high priests would be given the wealth, but they would be the ones responsibile for keeping the word of the LRD, for healing the sick, binding the injured, keeping the flock together and in harmony with the commandments.

If these mortal men had done as they were supposed to do, there would have been no need for a New Testament, but HaShem knew (He always knows ahead of man) they could not keep it. Look at Isaiah 59, look at Ezekiel 34 (read all of this important chapter), look at Jeremaiah 31, look at Zecharaih for those who do not read the Old Testament, look at Hebrews 7:26-28.

The reason for a New Testament was that the high priests, by not keeping the flock together and keeping them true to the word, had broken their seal of acceptance of G-D's Old Covenant. The law itself did not change with the New testament. What changed was that there would no longer be a need for the high priests, mortal men, to make sacrifices...the Greatest sacrifice of them all would be made--the one written in Isaiah 53, which cannot be about Israel, because 53:2 says "he had no form nor comeliness,that we should look upon him, nor beauty that we should delight in him.
" but clearly, when G-D gave Abraham the lands, He specified what the borders were, and is there anyone who would say that going through the desert for 40 years to reach a Land of Milk and Honey makes this land undesireable?
Isaiah 53:3 clearly says this is "
3 ..."a man of pains" and there is no other way to read it but that it is a MAN.
53:7 "He was oppressed, though he humbled himself and opened not his mouth; as a lamb that is led to the slaughter, and as a sheep that before her shearers is dumb; yea, he opened not his mouth."--CAN ANYONE REMEMBER, EVEN DURING THE HOLOCAUST OF MODERN DAY, ISRAEL BEING QUIET, but Jesus said not a word in His defense,

In the New Testament, there was a name for those who had been separated and responsible for keeping the Old Testament, those who were to be held accountable...those against whom G-D showed His wrath so clearly, without any question, in Ezekiel 34...The word in Hebrew for "separate" is PARASH. Those who were supposed to keep the word, and who would therefore know about the New Testament, but were too consumed with their own wealth, were the Pharisees.
If they had been able to keep the word, they would have known who they were speaking to, because Isaiah 59, Jeremaiah 31, Ezekiel 34 all spoke of it, even if they did believe Isaiah 53 meant something else.

When Jesus died, as was prophesied in the Psalms, when He arose and the Spirit was to come, as was prophesied so many times, the Pharisees should have told the people the truth. When the fall of the Second Temple, prophesied in Daniel 9, sealed the timeframe of when the Messiah would come, they should have spoken about it. They didn't. They kept up a sacrifical system that in their own Book was prophesied as being invalid, broken by man. That was what was changed, the sacrificial system.

The Levites of the Old Testament became the Pharisees of the New Testament became the rabbis and Orthodox of modern day. And, as we can see from Lady Suri's post, the knowledge about the Truth and why Jesus spoke of the Old testament is still a foreign object.....Me, having been born a rabbinic Jew, I choose to stay on the path on which I now am, and stay true to Torah, and to the Prophets, and to the Messiah ben Yoseph, the 1st of two, because I want to be ready when the Messiah ben David-the Conquering King, comes.

2007-11-05 01:33:43 · answer #1 · answered by sirburd 4 · 0 2

Oy givalt, this again. Here we go:

1) J*sus did not do anything the messiah is supposed to do. (One of these includes the fact that he cannot die before completing ALL of the tasks, which we all know J*sus did. There is no "second coming.")

Here is a short list of some prophecies:
Is there universal knowledge of one G-d? (Jeremiah 31:33, Zechariah 8:23, 14:9, 14:16, Isaiah 11:9, Isaiah 40:5, Zephaniah 3:9)
Were all Jews returned to Israel? (Isaiah 43:5-6, Isaiah 11:12, Isaiah 27:12-13)
Did he bring world peace? (Isaiah 11:6, Micah 4:3)
Were all weapons destroyed? (Ezekiel 39:9)
Did all warfare cease? (Isaiah 2:4)
Was the Temple rebuilt in it's place? (Ezekiel 37:24-28 Ezekiel 40-48, Isaiah 33:20, Micah 4:1)
Did he bring physical restoration to all who are sick or disabled in any way? (Isaiah 35:5-6)
Was he preceded by Elijah? (Malachi 3:23-24-- 4:4-5 in KJV)
Did the nations help the Jews materially? (Isaiah 60:5, 60:10-12, 61:6)
Does eternal joy and gladness characterize the Jewish nation? (Isaiah 51:11)
Are Jews sought for spiritual guidance? (Zechariah 8:23)
Is the Egyptian river dry yet? (Isaiah 11:15)
Do trees in Israel yield new fruit every month? (Ezekiel 47:12)
Did each tribe receive it's inheritance? (Ezekiel 47:13-14)
Is the enemy buried? (Ezekiel 39:12)
Did he accomplish these tasks without tiring or failing? (Isaiah 42:4)
Did death cease? (Isaiah 25:8)
Are the dead resurrected? (Isaiah 26:19, Daniel 12:2, Ezekiel 37:12-13)

Then no, J*sus is not messiah.

2) J*sus did everything contrary to what a Messiah would do. Most importantly, he did magic tricks/'miracles.' It is written that the messiah will not need to do them to prove he is messiah, and that the one who tries to claim he is messiah by doing those kind of tricks is a FALSE prophet.

Here is some good literature on the subject:
http://www.messiahtruth.com/response.htm...
http://www.moshiach.com/questions/topten...
http://www.jewsforjudaism.org/

Finally, in reference to Isaiah 53: It only makes sense as a messianic chapter if that's the only chapter in Isaiah. But it's not. It's the 53rd chapter. It comes after 52. Didn't read 52? Shame. 52 clearly states that what they're talking about is all of Israel.


***And to the cheeky little sprat up there who said we only believe what we're taught about everything and never question it....Evidently, you were never taught anything, and that's why you pretend to be something that can never be.

2007-11-04 16:27:57 · answer #2 · answered by LadySuri 7 · 1 1

Short answer to Isaiah 53. Show me where in that entire chapter dose the author use the word messiah or hint to the fact that he is talking about the messiah?

Prophecy is about predicting future events, not comparing what happened to what was said in the past that is not related.

The biblical prophets described what the messiah would accomplish in this world never did they mention anything about spiritual salvation or the need for the messiah to be a martyr.

but if you want to know why Jews do not believe that Jesus could not have been the messiah then I suggest this.

http://www.jewsforjudaism.org/jews-jesus/jews-jesus-index.html

2007-11-04 16:22:36 · answer #3 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 4 0

Here is why we don't believe that Jesus was the messiah in simple terms:
1) The dead were not resurrected
2) The Jews did not beome priests to the other nations
3) There is no world peace
4) The temple is not standing
5) There is no temple service
6) There is no parah adumah or its ashes to render us tahor
7) The messiah is from the House of David. your house/tribe is inherited from your father. Your father is your BIOLOGICAL father- there is no adoption in Judaisim to another father- if God is the father of Jesus- then Jesus cannot be from the House of David as God is not frm the House of David.
8) Human sacrifice is completely forbidden in Judaism- remeber God stopping the sacrifice of Isaac? The idea of a human being sacrificed is the opposite of anything from Judaism!
9) You have to atone for yourself! An essential part of the atonement process is being repentant. Someone cannot be repentant for you- you have to do it for yourself. ONly communal sins can be forgiven communally- not individual, private sins!
10) The Messiah is a completely righteous individual that follows God's Torah 100%- varying neither to the right nor to the left. The gospels record instances where Jesus broke Jewish law -this in utself is enough to invalidate him from being the Messiah.

And no- the messiah does NOT proclaim himself- he will be recognised by his deeds- not by his claims- in other words, through doing the above he will be recognised as the messiah. On top of that- mashiach is a HUMAN being, with HUMAN parents- the idea of an anthropomorphised God going around and impregnating young woman is completely alien to Judaism- though it fits very nicely into the pagan religions of the time which had their heroes being fathered by gods (ala Hercules and his daddy Zeus)

NOTE ON MESSIANIC JUDAISM/JEWS FOR JESUS
Both of these are deemed as nothing more than Christian sects using deceitful means to convert Jews. EVERY Jewish denomination denounces these sects as Christians and nothing more. However, by Jewish law, once a Jew, always Jew- whether born or converted. Thus once a person is Jewish they are always judged by Jewish standards, and if they revert/convert to a different religion they are still considered Jewish by Jewish law. BUT, someone practising a religion other than Judaism is considered outside of the community, may not be a member of the community, receive any community honours, be a representative for the community, be buried in a Jewish cemetary, marry a Jew or be treated as a Jew for the purposes of the laws of mourning. However, since they never stop being a Jew- they merely have to repent, return to Judaism and go to mikveh in order to once again be a full member of the community.

Now, Isaiah 53 is talking about the Jewish NATION- saying how they have suffered while remaining faithful servants to God. Its in the singular since a nation is a single entity- bu the context is clear since we find that in Chapter 52 the nation is explicitly discussed, then the allusion to the nation takes place into the singular for the last three vereses, continues into chapter 53 and then in Chapter 54 it switches away from the allussion to the specific. There is nothing in Isaiah 53 to indicate that it refers to an individual or to the Messiah.

2007-11-05 20:14:51 · answer #4 · answered by allonyoav 7 · 0 0

Jesus and his followers were Jewish.

2007-11-04 16:23:04 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

His being a Jew, the Jews know his con.

2007-11-04 16:18:12 · answer #6 · answered by buttfor2007 5 · 1 3

he was tried for blasphemy, a very serious crime in those days

2007-11-04 16:31:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

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