In all the translations I have read of Psalms 40:6, it is read as ".....but my ears you have pierced."
Then there is a footnote at the bottom that says:
Septuagint, "but a body you have prepaired for me"
Paul also quotes it this way in Hebrews 10:5. What is the true translation? Why is the Septuagint different from every translation in this particular verse?
2007-11-04
10:14:55
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7 answers
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asked by
Jonny
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
My followup question would be, why did Paul misquote it in Hebrews 10:5??
2007-11-04
10:29:06 ·
update #1
When a servant had served a six-year term, according to the law, he had to be released. The seventh year was the year of release and all of the servants were released from their bondage or from their servitude in the seventh year. Except if a servant would come to you and say, "I enjoy serving you. I am happy here. I don't want to go out free. I want to remain your servant." Then you would take an awl, and you would go over to the door post of your house and you would put his earlobe up against the doorpost, and you take this awl and pin him with the awl through the earlobe to the doorpost of your house. And then they would put a gold ring in the hole that was made. So that if you saw a servant or a slave with a gold ring in his ear, you knew that he was a servant by choice.
What God is saying is, "Look, I really don't want sacrifice or offering. I want you to submit unto a life of service. I want your life." And so we are a servant by choice.
The Septuagint version of the scriptures was a Hebrew to Greek translation of the Old Testament that was made by seventy scholars two hundred years before the birth of Christ. After the Babylonian captivity, the Hebrew language was almost dead. It was only known by the biblical scholars. The Jews, themselves, usually spoke the Koine or they spoke Greek, but Hebrew was only for biblical scholars. They felt that the people should have the Bible in a language they could understand. Kind of like what we do with English Bibles.
2007-11-04 10:35:19
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answer #1
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answered by thundercatt9 7
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Modern translations of the Old Testament are based on the Masoretic text, which differs substantially from the Septuagint, the Dead Sea Scrolls, the New Testament (quotes) and the Church Fathers (quotes). And the oldest Septuagint manuscripts pre-date the oldest Masoretic manuscripts by some 1000 years. That is why the Orthodox Church uses the Septuagint instead of the Masoretic Hebrew.
I forgot - the Samaritan Pententeuch typically agrees with the Septuagint over the Masoretic Hebrew as well.
Most of the differences are due to the fact that 20% of the Old Testament was speculation when vowel points were added in the Middle Ages.
2007-11-04 10:25:09
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answer #2
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answered by NONAME 7
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Would you please check your reference on this verse? My Psalms says nothing remotely similar to this.
If you're talking about verse seven, the direct translation from Hebrew says:
Neither sacrifice nor offering did You desire, but receptive ears You opened for me; burnt-offerings and sin offerings You did not request. vs. 8--Then I said, "Behold I have come!" with the Scroll of the Book that is written for me. vs. 9 To fulfill Your will, my G-d, do I desire, and Your Torah is in my innards.
I think that's different from the christian translation--but again, this is direct from Hebrew.
EDIT: to your follow-up question--I think the answer is plain--
Either 1) the writers of the Christian scriptures didn't know Jewish scripture very well, or 2) they knew it well, but misquoted it and counted on their audience NOT knowing it.
I don't like either of those options, but I don't see any others.
So much of the Jewish scripture quoted in Christian scripture is either mis-translated or not there at all...
2007-11-04 10:25:06
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answer #3
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answered by Tehilla V 4
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Psalms 40:6
It isn't sacrifices and offerings which you really want from your people. Burnt animals bring no special joy to your heart. But you have accepted the offer of my lifeling service. Then I said, "See, I have come, just as all the prophets foretold. And I delight to do your will, my God, for your law is written upon my heart!"
2007-11-04 10:24:08
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answer #4
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answered by Nikki 4
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The Artscroll Stone Edition Tanakh interprets it thus:
Much have You done, O You Hashem, my God, Your wonders and Your thoughts are for us -- none can compare to You -- were I to relate or speak (of them), they are too overwhelming to recount.
Commentary: A righteous person shows gratitude for God's help by affirming his allegiance to the Torah and proclaiming His wonders to the world.
Do Jews and Christians share the same book? I'm not so sure....
.
2007-11-04 10:27:25
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answer #5
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answered by Hatikvah 7
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that's a good question -- the Hebrew is clearly "oznaim" -- ears.
אָזְנַיִם, כָּרִיתָ לִּי
and the major commentary is
You dug ears for me saying, “Hearken to My voice.”
You dug You made them hollow [enabling me] to hear.
2007-11-04 10:20:50
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answer #6
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answered by rosends 7
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ear piercing in biblical times was a sign of slavery.
2007-11-04 10:19:55
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answer #7
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answered by trooper753 5
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