Why did Apostle Paul change the Bible??

Question

Both verses from the NIV, Paul quotes Psalms trying to show how King David tells us God provided His son to atone for sin.

Hebrews 10:5 Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said: "Sacrafice and sin offerings you did not desire, but a body you have prepared for me....."

Psalms 40:7 Sacrafice and offerings you did not desire, but my ears you have pierced..."

Why did Paul change the verse to fit his ideology? Why did he molest the word of God??

Kitz, please read the same passages in the KJV. Still the same problem.

Answer 1

The Protestant reformers changed the Bible not Paul.
The translations and interpretations of the Scriptures have been violated by the Protestant reformers:

It is one thing for the Protestant reformers to dare cut off entire books, chapters, sentences and words from Scripture, but even more, the books that they chose not to cut off they have corrupted and violated by their translations. Compare the Vulgate Latin translation from the middle of the second century, (universally received by the Church at that time and declared as authentic by the Council of Trent) to translations of Scripture Protestant churches use today. There is a night and day difference in wording. And even worse, compare translations of Scripture between different Protestant denominations and they also differ!
How can private men (the reformers) so boldly take their hand to the word of God and change it? If one man does such a thing, then what is to stop the next man from doing it to his taste, and the next to his taste? An example:
In Acts 2:27 we see, "thou wilt not leave my soul in hell" while in a version of a Protestant bible we see the verse, "thou shalt not leave my corpse in the tomb". Clearly this is not an accurate translation and the meaning is not at all the same. It is common knowledge that only one word can change the meaning of an entire sentence. We note here that Hieronymus Emser, a literary opponent of Luther, points out 1400 inaccuracies in Luther's translation of Scripture, while Bunsen, a Protestant scholar, points out 3000. If Luther, Calvin and other reformers' translations of a verse in Scripture differ from the original AND from each other, which one is the word of God? Or are all three versions of the verse still the word of God, though their translation may make their meaning completely different from the next? How can so many brains which are so different make so many translations without overthrowing the sincerity of Scripture?
It has always been a practice of the early Church to limit the Scriptures to universal languages such as Greek and Latin since they are not only universal but also not subject to changes like other languages. Most other languages change town to town in accents, phrases, and words (i.e. slang), and vary season to season and age to age and therefore it has never been recommended by the early Christian Church to translate the Bible to other languages that are not fixed languages. Doing so has much more danger than profit as we can see from our example above. Though we note here also that the early Christian Church has never disallowed translation of the Scriptures to non-fixed languages, though She has always insisted that public services of the Church use a fixed language translation to avoid possibly misleading the faithful with verses of possibly incorrect translation and meaning.
In summary, the Protestant reformers not only made major changes to Scripture by poor translations, but also translated Scripture to all the local non-fixed languages of the people where they started their churches, and they use those faulty translations in their church services. Is it not evident why there are so many Protestant interpretations of Scripture all in conflict with one another?

Answer 2

We should thank Paul and follow Jesus' advice. However, Church Empires cannot be built on following Jesus' instructions. So the "Church" has twisted and shouted so much that we land up following the advice and dogma of Paul , and then Paul taught that Jesus' body paid for our sins. So naturally Paul goes on to teach "if you believe my story that Jesus died for our sins, then you are saved; you will go to Heaven". ------------ If you don't see the irony, you probably do not appreciate my comments. --- smiles

Answer 3

He did?

Answer 4

Paul felt that the old version of these bronze age middle eastern goat herders fairy tales needed some improvement for marketing purposes perhaps dear.

Answer 5

Wrong.The occultists changed all the versions except the King James over a century ago,and continue to butcher them to this day.The NIV is a New Age bible,not the Holy Bible.