If so, where does this authority come from and doesn't it, in fact, create a de facto doctrine?
2007-11-04
06:34:57
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4 answers
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asked by
athorgarak
4
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
I hate to break it to you two, but OFFICIAL PAPAL doctrine from the time of Martin Luther stated the following:
1. PURCHASING an indulgence would pull a man's soul from the fires of hell, even if he were to have violated the mother of Christ, herself.
2. Purchasing an indulgence would pay for the sins of the person, in whose name it was purchased
3. There was no sin that the papal indulgence could not erease
The writings of Martin Luther accurately documented these assertations and they were never, ever challenged as to their veracity, just their stance on the issue!
Revisionist, catholic statements do not change the truth of history.
Regardless, let's say that they are only for the forgiveness of certain sins, under what authority does the pope SELL forgiveness?
2007-11-04
07:12:15 ·
update #1
all grants of indulgences involving any fees or other financial transactions
That staement is an actual admission of the SALE of indulgences, please, look up both the word 'fee' and 'transaction'
As to the claim that Martin Luther was incorrect in his assertations, the truth is surely shown that the catholic prince (frederik, I believe) of Germany granted both assylum and safe conduct to Luther, having heard both the statements and charges Luther made against Rome, on this issue and the charges leveled at him by Rome. Were it shown that Luther had lied, the Prince would not have opposed Rome, but the Prince had first hand knowledge that what Luther said (that indulgences WERE the sale of forgiveness) AND, more importantly, that what Luther said, was in fact, true.
Beyond this, Rome admited that they could not contend with Luther on a basis of Holy Scripture, only on the basis of his rebellion of church doctrine!
The Pope admitted that Luther was scripturely correct!
2007-11-04
07:20:48 ·
update #2