Roman law clearly stated that the body of a crucified criminal was never released, ever. It was literally thrown to the dogs or buried in a mass grave as a last final insult to the criminal.
Pilate seems to have been a particularly sadistic individual who was eventually removed from power for his sadism.
What could Joseph have possibly offered Pilate to convince him to hand him over?
2007-11-03 18:19:55 · 12 answers · asked by Gawdless Heathen 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
hsmomlovinit-absolutely not, Pilate's "distaste" for the killing of jesus gets worse the later the writing. As the gospels go along the blame is pushed more from the gentiles to the jews.
2007-11-03 18:27:30 · update #1
Did he have sketchings of Pilate in "compromising situations"?
2007-11-03 18:29:13 · update #2
Obviously, the entire story is fiction.
2007-11-03 18:27:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 2⤋
In the Lost gospel of Peter, it was mentioned that Joseph of Arimathea was a friend of both Pilate and Jesus, if this is true, it explained several points, like why Joseph gets the body and he seems to know in advance since he has prepared a new tomb nearby, it might also explained why they didn't break Jesus' legs, in the bible it states that it was due to the prophecy but it's unlikely since the procedure is to break the legs to make sure the victim dies not merely piercing his side to see if he's already dead, unless the legs were broken to stop the victim from breathing, he might still has a chance of survival.
2007-11-03 19:34:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Greetings!
Cruci-Fiction maybe?
We find that reference is scarce-
The only information regarding Pontius Pilate is in the New Testament, and by two Jewish writers: Josephus and Philo of Alexandria, who wrote much later-later still was Tacitus, when speaking of the cruel punishments inflicted by Nero upon the Christians, tells us that Christ, from whom the name "Christian" was derived, was put to death when Tiberius was emperor by the procurator Pontius Pilate (Annals xv.44).
We also see that Legend has always predominated over History. Joseph was said to have traveled many places in the late 30`s, but the dates don`t quite add up-
So, the answer is in the Mind of the answerer, as I have noticed several rather, let`s say, "silly" assumptions! But Joseph is part of the "Grail" Legend, which I enjoy quite a bit, and most of the Church does not.
We like to think that Joseph was a relative of the Family, and so would have rescued Jesus at some point, and, as far as Roman Law went, Crucifiction was meant as a punshment in itself, and the sentence was for a specific time period to be spent hanging around, with possible survival at the end of the sentence-of course, the Law was interpreted differently in different Jurisdictions, so will we ever know?
It`s a Mystery.(you`ll have to read my upcoming Book on the subject!)
/!\
2007-11-03 19:00:39 · answer #3 · answered by Ard-Drui 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Joseph of Arimathea was Jesus' uncle, a member of the ruling Jewish Sanhedren, he was one of the richest men in the world at the time, and he was also very well connected, geo-politically.
Money and power talks ... and this was a combination that would have been very impressive and persuasive, especially to a relatively obscure, guilt ridden, Roman Governor.
Its also never a good idea to underestimate the power of God, in matters like this.
Jesus predicted he would rise bodily from the dead, in three days.
It would seem necessary then, that his mortal remains be preserved until that time.
2007-11-03 22:54:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because Pilate didn't agree with Jesus' conviction or sentence to begin with. He wasn't a sadistic individual, he was just plain spineless. He knew it was an unjust sentence to begin with, but didn't want to risk further censure from Rome for allowing the situation to morph into a full-scale riot.
Joseph didn't have to offer him anything - Pilate most likely wanted the situation to be done with, and didn't feel that Jesus was a criminal to begin with, so he allowed Joseph to give him an honorable burial. By the time the events of the day were over, even those who shouted for him to be crucified didn't argue.
Edit...oh, I get it. I have to come up with the answer *you're* looking for. Gotcha.
2007-11-03 18:25:29 · answer #5 · answered by hsmomlovinit 7 · 1⤊ 3⤋
I thought they had to take Him down because of Sabbath or something. Isn't there some stink about 3 days really being 2 or some such mess?
2016-04-02 03:44:12 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I give up. What's the answer?
Maybe Pilate didn't know about it. Maybe Joseph slipped one of Pilate's men a few pieces of silver.
2007-11-03 18:26:36 · answer #7 · answered by Pull My Finger 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Joseph was a member of the Sanhedrin (the Jewish Supreme Court). The Jews always buried their dead on the same day they died before sundown. Pilot had also tried to free Jesus because Pilot said he found no fault in Jesus.
2007-11-03 18:33:39 · answer #8 · answered by 9_ladydi 5 · 2⤊ 3⤋
Because Joseph of Arimathea was a member of the Jewish priests and had lots of influence. Pilate was under a lot of pressure then, that is why he caved in to have Jesus killed in the first place.
2007-11-03 18:24:58 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 4⤋
Joseph was really related to Herod, as was Jesus.
2007-11-03 18:26:31 · answer #10 · answered by Somewhat Enlightened, the Parrot of Truth 7 · 0⤊ 5⤋