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Why do you believe that Jesus is the Arch Angel Michael?
After you read John 1, how can you deny Jesus being God?
and many other passages where Jesus says "I AM"
John1:1 stats "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
Not "The word was with God, and the word was (a) god."
*-*-*I studied for sometime with JWs and this through me off. It just didn't seem right in so many ways-*-*-*
In Exodus 3:14- GOD is talking to Moses .
14 And God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.” And He said, “Thus you shall say to the children of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’” 15 Moreover God said to Moses, “Thus you shall say to the children of Israel: ‘The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever, and this is My memorial to all generations.’

2007-11-03 17:24:26 · 5 answers · asked by TXM 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

John 8: 54- Jesus to Jews
54 Jesus answered, “If I honor Myself, My honor is nothing. It is My Father who honors Me, of whom you say that He is your[m] God. 55 Yet you have not known Him, but I know Him. And if I say, ‘I do not know Him,’ I shall be a liar like you; but I do know Him and keep His word. 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.”
57 Then the Jews said to Him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?”
58 Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”
59 Then they took up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple,[n] going through the midst of them, and so passed by.
-*-*-*-*-*-
Jesus clearly quoted what GOD said in the OT "I AM" and the Jews got angry and wanted to stone him, ...How can this be denied???

2007-11-03 17:24:40 · update #1

5 answers

Very simple the same bible that have John 1:1 says in Job 1:6 and 2:1 that all angels are sons of God .

The same bible says that all the sons of God are gods (Psalms 82:1 and verse 6)

So if Jesus is a son of God according to John 3:16 then he could be an angel and still is a god.

but that is not all

the same bible says that the voice of Jesus is the voice of Archangel , why he has a voice of Archangel if he is not an archangel (By the way there is only one). in 1 Thessal 4:16

about Michael archangel the same bible says in Daniel 12:1 that is the great prince that will bring a great tribulation and will resurrect people that are dead in the future. why the bible says about an angel something that only Jesus does?

why the bible describe in Revelation 10:1-3 a powerful angel that match in every gingle detail with Jesus?

and why the bible call Jesus the angel of covenant in the book of Malachi?

Why Jesus was among the angels if he doesn´t belongs to that group? he is the higher one but God almighty talked wtih him when he was among the rest of the sons of God, by the way the bible call him the firstson in Colossians 1:15-17.

AT JOHN 8:58 a number of translations, for instance The Jerusalem Bible, have Jesus saying: "Before Abraham ever was, I Am." Was Jesus there teaching, as Trinitarians assert, that he was known by the title "I Am"? And, as they claim, does this mean that he was Jehovah of the Hebrew Scriptures, since the King James Version at Exodus 3:14 states: "God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM"?

At Exodus 3:14 (KJ) the phrase "I AM" is used as a title for God to indicate that he really existed and would do what he promised. The Pentateuch and Haftorahs, edited by Dr. J. H. Hertz, says of the phrase: "To the Israelites in bondage, the meaning would be, 'Although He has not yet displayed His power towards you, He will do so; He is eternal and will certainly redeem you.' Most moderns follow Rashi [a French Bible and Talmud commentator] in rendering [Exodus 3:14] 'I will be what I will be.'"

The expression at John 8:58 is quite different from the one used at Exodus 3:14. Jesus did not use it as a name or a title but as a means of explaining his prehuman existence. Hence, note how some other Bible versions render John 8:58

Jesus is god but he is not Jehovah the almighty God according to John 14:28 unless Jesus lies to us and he is equal to his father.

2007-11-03 17:30:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

"I am" in John's Gospel
The Expository Times, 1996, page 302 by Kenneth Mckay.

"The verb 'to be' is used differently, in what is presumably its basic meaning of 'be in existence', in John 8:58: prin Abraam genesthai ego eimi, which would be most naturally translated 'I have been in existence since before Abraham was born', if it were not for the obsession with the simple words 'I am'. If we take the Greek words in their natural meaning, as we surely should, the claim to have been in existence for so long is in itself a staggering one, quite enough to provoke the crowd's violent reaction."

Jesus isn't quoting Ex. 3:14 at John 8.

Jesus is answering the question 'how old are you?'

His answer: 'I am older than Abraham'.

As Jehovah's Firstborn, the Beginning of the creation by God.

Jesus is older than the universe.

Did you know that when the Jews translated Ex 3:14 into Greek the translation read: (Greek Septuagint Bible, the bible Jesus and the apostles quoted from)

"Tell them "I am The Being"",

Gr., E•go´ ei•mi ho on, "I am The Being,"

So what would Jesus have had to say 'In Greek" to be quoting Ex 3:14?


.

2007-11-04 10:04:30 · answer #2 · answered by TeeM 7 · 2 0

The questioner asks several significant questions, which seem to require that several "Questions" be asked. Only the first is addressed with this answer.


The central teaching of trinitarianism supposes that Jesus is Jehovah, but a child could refute that idea (see John 8:42; 12:49; 14:28; 20:17; 1 Cor 8:4-6; 11:3; 15:28). By contrast, Jehovah's Witnesses do happen to believe that Michael is Jesus, but the idea is hardly central to their faith.

It is just that a child can recognize what the bible says about the idea...

Is not Jesus Christ the primary "Seed" who defeats Satan? The Millennial Rule begins with Satan's abyssing, performed by Christ Jesus, and no mere subsidiary. Thus, when Revelation 12:7-9 tells us that "Michael" performs this work, Jehovah's Witnesses are convinced that "Michael" is simply another name for Jesus, just as "Immanuel", "Sprout", "David", and "The Word" are additional names of Jesus (see Matt 1:23 ["Immanuel"]; Zech 6:12 ["Sprout", "Branch", or "Shoot"]; Ezek 37:24,25 ["David"]; Rev 19:13 ["The Word of God"]).

(Genesis 3:15) He [the Seed of God's woman] will bruise you [the original serpent Satan] in the head

(Revelation 12:7-9) Michael and his angels battled with the dragon... So down the great dragon was hurled, the original serpent, the one called Devil and Satan

(Revelation 20:1-3) And I saw an angel... And he seized the dragon, the original serpent, who is the Devil and Satan, and bound him for a thousand years. And he hurled him into the abyss

(Revelation 20:6-7) Rule as kings with [Christ] for the thousand years.


Almost comically, the same trinitarians who insist that Jesus cannot have another name are the same persons who pretend that Jesus is also called Jehovah.

While anti-Witnesses pretend that Jehovah's Witnesses rely upon one Scripture for the belief that Jesus is the archangel Michael, that passage (1 Thes 4:14-16) is simply the easiest, most concise demonstration of the fact.
...(1 Thessalonians 4:14-16) Jesus died and rose again, so, too... the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice

Learn more:
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/dg/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/lmn/index.htm?article=article_04.htm

2007-11-04 08:06:14 · answer #3 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 2 0

I went over each verse in my new King James Version of the Bible and found it would be a real stretch to draw the conclusion that Jesus is Michel the Archangel. As always you have to read the whole paragraph or even the whole chapter to get a full understanding of the verse. When some one has to go to a French interruption of a verse to make there point then they are really stretching the truth of the verse.

2007-11-04 01:24:50 · answer #4 · answered by GARY M 2 · 0 2

You Studied with the Witnesses and you could'nt get it huh? Well you not the first and certainly wont be the last.

2007-11-04 01:32:12 · answer #5 · answered by conundrum 7 · 3 0

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