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The NWT ( New World Translation ) renders Romas 10:13,
" Everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved. " Jehovah's Witnesses cite this verse in arguing for the necessity of using God's proper name, Jehovah, in attaining salvation ( Reasoning from the Scriptures, 1989, 149 )

2007-11-03 16:36:55 · 17 answers · asked by Nina, BaC 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

No. Do you know how many times the name Jehovah was used in the New Testament? The answer is zero. In the original Greek texts it is never used. JW's inserted it in many places where the word Lord is used to support their non-Biblical beliefs. Interestingly they did not replace Lord with Jehovah everywhere in the NT. The answer to why they did not is simple. If they did there would be verses that say worship Jesus as Jehovah. Since they deny Jesus is God they could not do that.

2007-11-03 16:42:52 · answer #1 · answered by Bible warrior 5 · 3 3

In its section under the Greek word Ky´ri•os (“Lord”), Robinson’s A Greek and English Lexicon of the New Testament (printed in 1859) says that it means “God as the Supreme Lord and sovereign of the universe, usually in Sept[uagint] for Heb[rew] יהוה Jehovah.” Hence, in places where the Christian Greek Scripture writers quote the earlier Hebrew Scriptures, the translator has the right to render the word Ky´ri•os as “Jehovah” wherever the divine name appeared in the Hebrew original.

Romans 10:13 is quoted in Joel 2:32 so the Lord in Romans 10:13 can be translated as Jehovah

When someone is called Kyrios it doesn't mean that automatically he is the Almighty God.
Lord of lords both use kyrios, it doesn't mean that the lords are all Almighty God.

When Jesus is called kyrios, it doesn't mean that he is also the Almighty God. Why? Because as Acts 2:36 states that God has MADE Jesus both Lord and Christ. The Lordship of Jesus has a beginning because it was MADE by God.

2007-11-05 10:56:32 · answer #2 · answered by trustdell1 3 · 1 0

No, because in all the original language manuscripts of Romans 10:13, it reads "name of the Lord", and not "name of Jehovah".

Four verses earlier, Paul wrote that we should confess that "Jesus is Lord". So Paul may likely be referring to Jesus as Lord in verse 13.

If the verse is referring to Jehovah, it should still be translated as Lord because that's the word that Paul used, and "lord" is often used in the Bible to refer to Jehovah God.

Even if Romans 10:13 is a quote from Joel (which is questionable), it doesn't matter that Joel had originally used YHWH, because Joel didn't write the letter to the Romans. Paul wrote it, and he didn't always quote scriptures "word for word" . Paraphrasing is NOT the same thing as "misquoting".

Here's another example of Paul paraphrasing (not misquoting) an Old Testament writer. Three verses later in verse 16, Paul names Isaiah and quotes Isa. 53:1. He doesn't quote Isaiah exactly, word for word, because Paul used the word "Lord" which wasn't used in Isa. 53:1. The NWT uses "Jehovah", but Isa. 53:1 uses neither 'lord' nor "YHWH".

This raises the question : Why did the NWT use "Jehovah" in verse 16 if they insist that New Testament writers must quote Old Testament scriptures exactly as originally written, and YHWH was NOT in the original?

I'm not an "anti'YHWH" activist - I'm a "pro'YHWH" activist when the original language calls for it. But the Bible doesn't use YHWH in the New Testament, so I do not support ALTERING the Scriptures to add YHWH where it doesn't belong.

Edited for trustdell

you say "the translator has the right" ----- who says so? who gave the translator the right to change what Paul said, to match what someone THINKS he SHOULD have said, but didn't? What other liberties do translators have the "right" to change, according to their own preference?

Did you notice that Paul didn't say he was quoting from Joel?

2007-11-05 07:36:52 · answer #3 · answered by browneyedgirl 3 · 2 2

The Greek reads:
Πᾶς γὰρ ὃς ἂν ἐπικαλέσηται τὸ ὄνομα κυρίου σωθήσεται.

The part in question here is ὄνομα κυρίου which means literally name of the Lord. The word κυρίου is not Jehovah but Lord and is the word they called Jesus anytime they said Lord Jesus Christ.

Now the interesting thing is that in the LXX the Tetragrammaton YHWH is many times translated κυρίου. This is even further proof (substantial at that) that the earliest disciples knew who Jesus had claimed to be and who they believed him to be.

The incorrect rendering in the NWT is not surprising as their founder Charles Taze Russell perjured himself in court when he claimed knowledge of Greek and Hebrew and was proven to not even know the Greek alphabet.

--edit as another poster said however, if you called upon Jehovah and understood that he was Jesus you would be ok. He is Jehovah and Lord.

John 10:30 The Father and I are one. (NET)

One in that instance does not mean one in idea it is the cardinal number 1. It means they are the same substance.

2007-11-03 23:56:13 · answer #4 · answered by δοῦλος Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ 5 · 1 0

NO. I believe the verse imports the act of actually seeking God's intervention in whatever you do so that you would be enlightened and be able to make good judgements. Exemplifying ones belief through good deeds is what leads to salvation. Literal interpretation of the bible and other religious writings is what causes all the unnecessary troubles the world is facing today, and the motive behind it could easily be discerned from the way religious sects give meaning to God's words to suit their interests.

2007-11-04 01:44:49 · answer #5 · answered by daiz 2 · 0 1

No. This verse is speaking about the doctrine of divine election. Before one is saved, they are like a spiritual corpse (Ephesians 2:1) and a corpse can do nothing to save itself or call upon anyone; unless God is drawing it (see John 6:37,44).

2007-11-03 23:48:27 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

There is no word "Jehovah" in the New Testament. Jehovah is only in the Old Testament. Thats why that NWT is only a cult invention thinking they can fool Christians.

2007-11-05 05:26:03 · answer #7 · answered by periclesundag 4 · 0 2

The KjV . say,s who so ever call,s upon the name of the Lord
the same shall be saved, I do not think it matter,s to God
just as long as they repent.

2007-11-03 23:46:03 · answer #8 · answered by elaine 30705 7 · 2 0

"Seek the LORD while he may be found; call on him while he is near. Let the wicked forsake his way and the evil man his thoughts. Let him turn to the LORD, and he will have mercy on him, and to our God, for he will freely pardon." Is 55:6,7

2007-11-03 23:45:04 · answer #9 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 3 0

Cool...they believe in salvation by calling on Jehovah's Name...I am saved...don't have to worry about it then! Amen!

2007-11-05 11:21:50 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

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