Question to Jehovah's Witnesses?

Question

Why do you believe that Jesus is the Arch Angel Michael?

After you read John 1, how can you deny Jesus being God?
and many other passeges where Jesus says "I AM"

John1:1 stats "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

Not "The word was with God, and the word was (a) god."

I studied for sometime with JWs and this through me off. It just didn't seem right in so many ways.

In Exodus 3:14- GOD is talking to Moses .
14 And God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.” And He said, “Thus you shall say to the children of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’” 15 Moreover God said to Moses, “Thus you shall say to the children of Israel: ‘The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you. This is My name forever, and this is My memorial to all generations.’

John 8: 54- Jesus to Jews
54 Jesus answered, “If I honor Myself, My honor is nothing. It is My Father who honors Me, of whom you say that He is your[m] God. 55 Yet you have not known Him, but I know Him. And if I say, ‘I do not know Him,’ I shall be a liar like you; but I do know Him and keep His word. 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.”
57 Then the Jews said to Him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?”
58 Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”
59 Then they took up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple,[n] going through the midst of them, and so passed by.
-*-*-*-*-*-
Jesus clearly quoted what GOD said in the OT "I AM" and the Jews got angry and wanted to stone him, ...How can this be denied???

Answer 1

Their organization is leading them to false belief. They even went that far as they tailored the Bible message to suit their teachings. The translators did not have any formal education in Biblical languages.

In their translation NWT John 1:1 says " a god" instead of "God" when talked about Jesus, the Word

Edit: THA, then how do you explain John 1:14?
And does Jesus say anywhere in the Bible " I, Jesus, am an archangel Michael? NO. He says He is the great "I am" and Jews knew that He was claiming to be God and they crucified Him for blasphemy.

Answer 2

Very simple the same bible that have John 1:1 says in Job 1:6 and 2:1 that all angels are sons of God .

The same bible says that all the sons of God are gods (Psalms 82:1 and verse 6)

So if Jesus is a son of God according to John 3:16 then he could be an angel and still is a god.

but that is not all

the same bible says that the voice of Jesus is the voice of Archangel , why he has a voice of Archangel if he is not an archangel (By the way there is only one). in 1 Thessal 4:16

about Michael archangel the same bible says in Daniel 12:1 that is the great prince that will bring a great tribulation and will resurrect people that are dead in the future. why the bible says about an angel something that only Jesus does?

why the bible describe in Revelation 10:1-3 a powerful angel that match in every gingle detail with Jesus?

and why the bible call Jesus the angel of covenant in the book of Malachi?

Why Jesus was among the angels if he doesn´t belongs to that group? he is the higher one but God almighty talked wtih him when he was among the rest of the sons of God, by the way the bible call him the firstson in Colossians 1:15-17.

Jesus is god but he is not Jehovah the almighty God according to John 14:28 unless Jesus lies to us and he is equal to his father.

Answer 3

The central teaching of trinitarianism supposes that Jesus is Jehovah, but a child could refute that idea (see John 8:42; 12:49; 14:28; 20:17; 1 Cor 8:4-6; 11:3; 15:28). By contrast, Jehovah's Witnesses do happen to believe that Michael is Jesus, but the idea is hardly central to their faith.

It is just that a child can recognize what the bible says about the idea...

Is not Jesus Christ the primary "Seed" who defeats Satan? The Millennial Rule begins with Satan's abyssing, performed by Christ Jesus, and no mere subsidiary. Thus, when Revelation 12:7-9 tells us that "Michael" performs this work, Jehovah's Witnesses are convinced that "Michael" is simply another name for Jesus, just as "Immanuel", "Sprout", "David", and "The Word" are additional names of Jesus (see Matt 1:23 ["Immanuel"]; Zech 6:12 ["Sprout", "Branch", or "Shoot"]; Ezek 37:24,25 ["David"]; Rev 19:13 ["The Word of God"]).

(Genesis 3:15) He [the Seed of God's woman] will bruise you [the original serpent Satan] in the head

(Revelation 12:7-9) Michael and his angels battled with the dragon... So down the great dragon was hurled, the original serpent, the one called Devil and Satan

(Revelation 20:1-3) And I saw an angel... And he seized the dragon, the original serpent, who is the Devil and Satan, and bound him for a thousand years. And he hurled him into the abyss

(Revelation 20:6-7) Rule as kings with [Christ] for the thousand years.


Almost comically, the same trinitarians who insist that Jesus cannot have another name are the same persons who pretend that Jesus is also called Jehovah.

While anti-Witnesses pretend that Jehovah's Witnesses rely upon one Scripture for the belief that Jesus is the archangel Michael, that passage (1 Thes 4:14-16) is simply the easiest, most concise demonstration of the fact.
...(1 Thessalonians 4:14-16) Jesus died and rose again, so, too... the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel's voice

Learn more:
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/dg/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.co.uk/e/lmn/index.htm?article=article_04.htm

Answer 4

John 8,

Did you know that when the Jews translated Ex 3:14 into Greek the translation read: (Greek Septuagint Bible, the bible Jesus and the apostles quoted from)

"Tell them "I am The Being"",

Gr., E•go´ ei•mi ho on, "I am The Being,"

So what would Jesus have had to say 'In Greek" to be quoting Ex 3:14?

The next time someone asks "How old are you?" give them your name. That is what you are saying Jesus did.

---


Footnote NAB: 2 [1] In the beginning: also the first words of the Old Testament (Genesis 1:1). Was: this verb is used three times with different meanings in this verse: existence, relationship, and predication. The Word (Greek logos): this term combines God's dynamic, creative word (Genesis), personified preexistent Wisdom as the instrument of God's creative activity (Proverbs), and the ultimate intelligibility of reality (Hellenistic philosophy). With God: the Greek preposition here connotes communication with another. Was God: lack of a definite article with "God" in Greek signifies predication rather than identification.

'The lack of the definite article in Greek signifies predication (a quality) rather than identification.'

Jesus has the qualities of God, not that he is God.

.

Answer 5

“I Am”

AT JOHN 8:58 a number of translations, for instance The Jerusalem Bible, have Jesus saying: “Before Abraham ever was, I Am.” Was Jesus there teaching, as Trinitarians assert, that he was known by the title “I Am”? And, as they claim, does this mean that he was Jehovah of the Hebrew Scriptures, since the King James Version at Exodus 3:14 states: “God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM”?

At Exodus 3:14 (KJ) the phrase “I AM” is used as a title for God to indicate that he really existed and would do what he promised. The Pentateuch and Haftorahs, edited by Dr. J. H. Hertz, says of the phrase: “To the Israelites in bondage, the meaning would be, ‘Although He has not yet displayed His power towards you, He will do so; He is eternal and will certainly redeem you.’ Most moderns follow Rashi [a French Bible and Talmud commentator] in rendering [Exodus 3:14] ‘I will be what I will be.’”

The expression at John 8:58 is quite different from the one used at Exodus 3:14. Jesus did not use it as a name or a title but as a means of explaining his prehuman existence. Hence, note how some other Bible versions render John 8:58:

1869: “From before Abraham was, I have been.” The New Testament, by G. R. Noyes.

1935: “I existed before Abraham was born!” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1965: “Before Abraham was born, I was already the one that I am.” Das Neue Testament, by Jörg Zink.

1981: “I was alive before Abraham was born!” The Simple English Bible.

1984: “Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures.

Thus, the real thought of the Greek used here is that God’s created “firstborn,” Jesus, had existed long before Abraham was born.—Colossians 1:15; Proverbs 8:22, 23, 30; Revelation 3:14.

As for those with the 'they changed John 1:1?
Look at how many translators other than JW's 'changed' it;

1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.

1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.

1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.

1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.


1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.

1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.

1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.

Answer 6

EXCUSE ME--- it does not say, Jesus is the Word anywhere in the Bible!

--SO BECAUSE it does not say "I Jesus am the Word" OR whatever you demand when we show that Jesus is Michael....
--WHY SHOULD we believe that JESUS IS GOD, if indeed there is NO SCRIPTURE that says Jesus is the Word?

--THIS IS THE type of reasoning that you use to refute that Jesus is Michael!
--DESPITE THE FACT that Jesus is definitely linked to Michael in the very same sentence:
(1 Thessalonians 4:16) “. . .because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first.”

--SO IF YOU are not going to allow the principle of association with Michael & Jesus connecting the 2 to be the very same....
--WHY SHOULD it be ok in John 1:1, 2 , ESPECIALLY WHEN Jesus name is not associated for some 16 verses:
(John 1:17) “17 Because the Law was given through Moses, the undeserved kindness and the truth came to be through Jesus Christ.”

--WHY IS SUCH flim flammery needed to prove your trinity?
==================
--UPDATE # 1
--(John 1:14-15) . . .So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth. 15 . . .

--THERE IS no question in my mind who the WORD IS(JESUS) , but there is still no direct reference to that fact!

--BUT THE FACT is that others of God's angels became fleshly humans, and choose to stay as demons:
--BECAUSE the angels in Noah's day took on fleshly bodies to have relations with the women--
--ONE CANNOT use the supposition THAT BECAUSE Jesus was transferred to Mary's womb and became a man , that ALONE PROVES he is the Word----there have to be other connections and needs to be QUALIFIED beyond what John 1:14 states!
--(Genesis 6:4) . . ."The Neph′i·lim proved to be in the earth in those days, and also after that, when the sons of the [true] God continued to have relations with the daughters of men and they bore sons to them, they were the mighty ones who were of old, the men of fame. ". .

(Jude 6) 6 "And the angels that did not keep their original position but forsook their own proper dwelling place he has reserved with eternal bonds under dense darkness for the judgment of the great day."

--SO THEN what is good for the WORD, being Christ--- is also just as good for MICHAEL the Archangel being Christ!
--AND WHAT IS NOT good for either of them is not good for the other!

Answer 7

Their bible reads, at John 1:1 "The word was with God, and the word was (a) god." By inserting "a" and not capitolizing "god", they therefore deny him being God. However, Jesus is said to lead the heavenly armies, and as he is God's only begotten son, it's reasonable to assume he is the head angel, the "Archangel". Michael does mean, after all, "he who is like God."


Awww, who thumbsed me down? Am I lying? Isn't it what they teach their studies? I KNOW it is, I grew up as a Jehovah's Witness. I KNOW I'm right.

Answer 8

The reason they don't believe it is because they are tuaght that our True Christian Bible is "missing" words, when in realitiy studies have shown that their Bible has ADDED words! Quite irronic!

Answer 9

They deny Jesus is God because they have been deceived by Satan.