This is exactly what I mean about Russellites only reading the text in a wooden, rigid fashion; which they call a "literal" translation. No, this is actually beyond literal, as well as quite misleading to a reader who follows this precarious hermeneutic style.
No, it is clear from the context (Matthew 19:13-16) that Jesus already knew about the rich young ruler (who would have been very noticeable amongst the others because he would have been wearing more expensive and elaborate attire, probably would have been carrying himself around more proudly, would have been more polished in his ability to communicate due to being raised in the best schools of the time, as well as having had more possessions with him in his travels, in contrast to the country bumkin' sons of Zebedee and the others; see verse 21), before he even uttered a word. Remember that John 2:25 states that Jesus had no need to hear this young man's address first, because He already knew what any man that had crossed His path was about before they even spoke!
The man had clearly desired to seek the approval of Jesus by taking advantage of using his privileged education to address the teacher, in front of all the others. And, after the young man asked his question, it was Jesus's objective to use anything that he would say to make him more aware of his sinful condition; evidenced by his proud and self-sufficient demeanor; which, by the way, is diametrically opposite to what Jesus had just taught the others in verses 13 through 15. He used the vividy descriptive example of how radically dependent little children are on their parents, and with other adults, and that the sons of the kingdom of God must be the same way with their Father in Heaven.
After man's question was posed by using a common and proper, but rather ingratiating address, "good teacher", (in Mark 10:17 and Luke 18:18 as well), Jesus used this to begin to describe his need for a Savior, rather than self-sufficiency. Jesus' response to the rich young ruler was just the answer the rich young man needed to hear, in order to begin to correct the man's spiritual misperceptions. He must've believed that he could do enough righteous acts to procure his salvation, since the questions that he asked even later was about that very subject (verses 18 through 20). And, since the rich young ruler obviously did not know just Whom he was talking to, other than Jesus being some kind of rabbinic figure, Jesus used his ignorance about His personage, his apparent intention to seek Jesus' approval AS a spiritual leader of good reputation and character, as well as about the way to eternal life. Therefore, Jesus' question to him was not for the purpose of identifying Himself, but to get the rich young ruler to begin to see his need for Him, the Savior.
Do you see how the context makes all the difference? Now, if I was to play along with this cryptogram code style of interpretation that the Russellites like to use, by lifting a word out of its context, such as this word "good", attributing it to have the same meaning everywhere else in the Bible, then what do they do with the fact that Jesus called Himself "the good Shepherd" in John 10:11? This leaves them no other option but to pick one verse over another, or hopefully just abandon altogether this spurious hermeneutical style of interpretation that got them in this quandry in the first place!
2007-11-04 08:52:56
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answer #1
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answered by Tom 4
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No Nina, Jesus was affirming that he was God. Remember there is no person that is sinless ( good) except God/Jesus. Jesus went on to be sad that the rich young ruler would not give up his riches, even after meeting he Jesus, the Messiah in person and being told that he was the Messiah. Yes believe in the Trinity. It is the truth
2007-11-03 16:01:11
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Jesus was speaking according to the teachings of the Torah and rabbinical writings that Jesus learned.
it was a matter of being properly humble according to the hebraic laws in not thinking himself equal with God. (phil 2:6)
He emphasized truths to each individual that needed to hear it. because he knew the hearts of men.
to a man of the synagogue Jesus referred to Himself as the Son of God.
and did not rebuke Peter when he got the revelation that He is the Christ, the Son of the living God.
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whenever the Bible is read, every verse of scripture on any topic has to be taken into account and rightly discerned.
i wouldnt accept what the jehovah's witnesses had to say about anything.
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2007-11-03 16:21:52
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answer #3
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answered by opalist 6
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Unlike Jehovah's Witnesses, Christians recognize that this statement is not meant as a denial of Jesus' godhead.
At this point, who Jesus is and was had only been revealed in words to the apostles (Matthew 16), and in appearance only on Mount Tabor before Peter, James, and John (the transfiguration, Matthew 17:1-9.)
The rich young man knew none of this. Jesus would not even begin to hint at it to others outside of his fold until he arrived in Jerusalem. The full unveiling of who Jesus is and was would not become apparent until after the Ressurection.
So to him, Jesus wanted to make a point about to the young man not to focus on things he could see as "good", but to "sell all that you have and distribute it to the poor, and you will have a treasure in heaven."
Although JWs don't get that Jesus could make this point in a way compatible with his not-yet-revealed nature, Christians do.
2007-11-03 16:02:57
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answer #4
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answered by evolver 6
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Although Jeus was God as the Second Person of the Trinity, He was also a real MAN with all its limitations except sin. It was in this capacity as a MAN that He spoke thus. In other words, Jesus, as a man, was not always aware of the fact that He shared in the Divinity. He very often spoke in the manner of His time as a man. The Trinity is about the nature of God Loving and Knowing Himself. Yes, we should believe. The biggest mistake of Jehovah Witnesses is that they try to prove dogma from Scripture. Scripture is NOT a textbook, dictionary or even a refererence book in which one can prove or disprove the dogma of the Trinity. It's main purpose is to inspire us to love God and neighbor. It is a great love story filled with real magic. Scripture is the infallible inspired word of God. Matt XVI: 18-19 gives this same infallible authority to the Catholic Church which it used to formulate the dogma of the Trinity. MAN was inspired by God to write the scriptures just as MAN also wrote the dogma of the Trinity from the authority of the Scripture. BOTH now share in infallibility. DO NOT try to prove this dogma from the scripture; it is not necessary.
2007-11-03 16:09:50
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answer #5
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answered by gismoII 7
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Jesus rebuked him because no one can call Him "good" unless they know Him and follow His commandments. As God in the flesh, and as God is fair to all and is not impartial to anyone, Jesus gave him a chance to prove his love for Him by telling him to sell everything he had and give it to the poor and follow Him. Jesus went on to tell His disciples in verses 28-30, that those who forsake all for His name's sake shall receive back a hundredfold for what they gave up, and shall inherit everlasting life. The rich young ruler missed out on this by refusing to part with his earthly treasures. God bless you!!!
2007-11-03 16:00:11
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answer #6
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answered by Virginia B (John 16:33) 7
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Jesus knew that the only reason he was good was because of the power of the Holy Spirit working in His life. He laid down His ability to be good in and of Himself when He took the form of sinful man. From that point forward, He was totally dependent on the guidance of the Holy Spirit to remain sinless, to learn obedience through the things that He suffered.
When Jesus came as a man, He laid down His divine attributes. He was no longer omnipotent, omnipresent or omniscient. Although He could call on any of these to ease the suffering of His fellow man, He would not use them to ease His own suffering or to make His way any easier. Jesus, although He was equal with God, humbled Himself by taking on the form of sinful man. The Greatest of the Great became the Lowest of the Low. He esteemed others more highly than Himself, so it is not unusual for Him to view Himself as not innately good. He was dependant on God for His goodness just as we are.
2007-11-03 15:55:58
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answer #7
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answered by 19jay63 4
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"Excellent question. Here, Jesus is, of course, speaking as a human being. Notice that he is addressed as "good teacher," and so responds according to what his human nature would prompt him to say. The word God, in Jesus' day and in a Jewish context, meant only Yahweh/the heavenly Father. It did not mean the Trinity, much less the Second person of the Trinity. You could rephrase this "No one is good but the Father alone." Jesus is not denying he is divine. He is denying he is the Father, or Yahweh, who in the first instance is the source of all goodness. In his divine nature, Jesus was one with the Father, but in his human nature he was distinguishable from the father and could speak in purely human terms."
That sums it up pretty well right?
2007-11-03 15:55:51
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answer #8
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answered by oghjokehui 2
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I tend to think that Jesus saw the rich young ruler as a person who could buy his way into anything and he needed a wake up call. Jesus gave him that!! There are some things money can't buy.
2007-11-03 15:52:15
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answer #9
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answered by Native Spirit 6
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Well for starters you have misquoted that passage of scripture, which accualy says Matt 19; 16Now a man came up to Jesus and asked, "Teacher, what good thing must I do to get eternal life?"
17"Why do you ask me about what is good?" Jesus replied. "There is only One who is good. If you want to enter life, obey the commandments."
Jesus never said he is God, but Gods son. As for the Trinity I am unsure about this.
2007-11-03 16:07:23
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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