By becoming a man, did He cease being God?
Matthew 8:20, 20:18, 24:30
2007-11-02 08:11:00 · 18 answers · asked by Nina, BaC 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No. He is both: Philippians 2:5 Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8 Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
By far, the most famous and influential use of the phrase son of man comes from the Book of Daniel. Parts of the text originally written in Aramaic, this portion of the volume deals with a vision attributed to the author about "the times of the end" - and is clearly a reference to the Messiah.
2007-11-02 08:17:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. What does this mean? Does not the Bible say Jesus was the Son of God? How then could Jesus also be the Son of Man? A first meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought Him near before Him. And there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed." The description "Son of Man" was a Messianic title. Jesus is the one who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase related to Himself, He was assigning the “Son of Man” prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. He was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.
A second meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel "son of man" 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1), but He was also a human being (John 1:14). 1 John 4:2 tells us, "This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God." Yes, Jesus was the Son of God – He was in His essence God. Yes, Jesus was also the Son of Man – He was in His essence a human being. In summary, the phrase "Son of Man" indicates that Jesus is the Messiah and that He is truly a human being.
Recommended Resource: Why Believe in Jesus?: Who He Is, What He Did, and His Message for You Today by Tim LaHaye.
2007-11-02 08:20:09 · answer #2 · answered by Freedom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is only a reference to His humanity in the sense that as a divine figure, according to Psalm 8, it describes Him also of the same nature as humanity, and possibly an archetype of humanity, similar to how Adam was, having been made a little lower the angels, thereby inferring His incarnation.
But, really, it is actually more a reference to His divinity! How's that? This name is more apocalyptic in nature than human, and really describes His divine and messianic role, according to Daniel 7.13-14: "In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into His presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and His kingdom is one that will never be destroyed."
Of course, the Jews were intimately familiar with this name as a messianic and divine figure from the book of the prophet Daniel, and when Jesus was arrested and called to account before the Sanhedrin and Roman authority, and later Stephen in Acts 7, when they both declared Him the Son of Man, the Jews all began to tear their robes (an act that is obligatory by the Jewish leaders in the presence of what is perceived to be blasphemous statements being made) and cried out for them to be punished and/or killed for blaspheming (for calling Jesus the divine messiah).
2007-11-02 13:45:52 · answer #3 · answered by Tom 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No! He didnt lose His deity. read this verse from Book of Daniel 7.13-14:
13 "In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a SON OF MAN, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence.
14 He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.
--- you can see here what the SOn of Man is. This is One who can approach the Throne of God in the Heavenlies, AND is given Universal Authority and Dominion. That explains enough that the Son of Man is a Title of Great exaltation and not of mere humanity
2007-11-02 10:01:35 · answer #4 · answered by Potter'sClay-Isa 64:8 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Son of Man is not a term of humanity but of of exaltation. William Lane craig in one of his books explains that many people belive son of Man is a term of humanity and Son of God is a term of divinity but this is not true. Son of Man is a direct allusion to the old Testament from Daniel 7:13-14
" I was watching in the night visions,
And behold, One like the Son of Man,
Coming with the clouds of heaven!
He came to the Ancient of Days,
And they brought Him near before Him.
14 Then to Him was given dominion and glory and a kingdom,
That all peoples, nations, and languages should serve Him.
His dominion is an everlasting dominion,
Which shall not pass away,
And His kingdom the one
Which shall not be destroyed."
- by Jesus referring to himself as the Son of Man he is putting himself in the position of one who approaches God himself in his heavenly throne room and is given universal authoirty and dominion. A mere human could not do such a thing therefore Son of Man is actually a claim to his Divinity.
2007-11-02 08:27:45 · answer #5 · answered by NILEqween 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Actually,if you read Daniel 7, being called Son of Man actually PROCLAIMS Jesus' Deity.
2007-11-02 08:20:28 · answer #6 · answered by Defender of Freedom 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The NT use of the phrase 'son of man' is a plagiaristic use of the term found in the prophets. There it refers to either the prophet himself or the object of a parable in a state of sin. It never refers to the Messiah and never implies divinity upon a human.
2007-11-02 08:16:38 · answer #7 · answered by Black Fedora 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Christ was both Son of God and son of man. because of his Spiritual side he was God in fleshly form, and because of his human side he was afflicted by all that we would be. Jesus never ceased being part of the Trinity, and was always God manifested in man.
2007-11-02 08:27:59 · answer #8 · answered by thornfieldaffens 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
study the scriptures of your God and mine. Our Lord changed into contained in the heart of the earth 3 days and three nights as Jonah changed into contained in the fish. . . . . . quit your doubting and have self assurance. You wrestle and wrestle, to achieve an eternity in hell. Forgiveness is easily unmerited and it is loose. he's a good God. immediately, it is the day of salvation. Repentance in the route of the daddy, faith in Christ Jesus He died for our sins in accordance with scripture He changed into buried He rose back on the 0.33 day in accordance with scripture ~The gospel. the front and midsection. complete and complete.
2016-10-23 06:52:15 · answer #9 · answered by riedinger 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the same way, I could also ask,
When my daughter calls me "dad", does that deny my role as my wife's husband???
By becoming a papa, do I cease being a husband?
2007-11-02 08:14:27 · answer #10 · answered by no1home2day 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋