2007-11-02 01:42:44 · 11 answers · asked by menokki 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ United Kingdom
For the work period ~~
2007-11-02 01:45:29 · answer #1 · answered by burning brightly 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Salaries are always paid for the "worked" period. This is done because employee's can quit at any time, and if they do the company is out money.
Best of luck with the new job!!!
If you don't mind drop by my website.
http://www.twistedjeweler.com
Thanks!
2007-11-02 01:48:53 · answer #2 · answered by michaelrayburn 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No company is going to pay for work that hasn't been done yet. Usually there is some lead time before you get that first check, and it will be for time you have put in. If they paid in advance, what would stop someone from hiring on, getting the first check, and never showing up to work?
2007-11-02 01:46:52 · answer #3 · answered by oklatom 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it's for the worked period. Why would anyone pay u in advance?
If salaries are paid in advance, it means people would have to pay back the company every time they leave/resign.
2007-11-02 01:46:19 · answer #4 · answered by Ayo A 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Salaries are paid for the hours you worked.
2007-11-02 01:47:25 · answer #5 · answered by LIPPIE 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
usually for the work period after the work has been done. But there are no rules on how an employer has to pay
2007-11-02 01:47:03 · answer #6 · answered by onewomanyoucanlove 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In order to earn a salary you need to work first.
2007-11-02 01:52:06 · answer #7 · answered by bornfree 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
worked
2007-11-02 01:45:14 · answer #8 · answered by tedrfandthedog 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
usually for the "worked" period.
2007-11-02 01:49:45 · answer #9 · answered by JerZey 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you work for usually a wek or a month, then get paid, sometimes by cheque, cash or ito a bank account
2007-11-02 03:14:14 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋