One possibility lies in the definition of the word "death".
As humans, we tend to contemplate death primarily as physical death.
But God told Adam "On the day you eat of the fruit of the tree of knowledge you will surely die."
He did not die physically that day - but he did die spiritually. He became alienated from the Life of God.
Jesus also said this:
"I am the resurrection and the life; he who believes in Me will live even if he dies,
and everyone who lives and believes in Me will never die. Do you believe this?" (John 11:25-26)
Here He speaks of a man who "lives, even if he dies", and then of the same man as one who "will never die".
It is quite plain to me that what He means is, even if a person should die physically, they will never die really, because they continue to maintain a living relationship with God, which is Life indeed.
To be alive physically means to be interactive with the sphere of one's existence, namely, the material world; but there is a parallel existence for everyone who has been born of the Spirit that brings them into a living, abiding relationship with the Holy Spirit of God, who upholds and sustains all creation, and who is Himself ultimate reality. If we live to God, even though we die to this material world, we will never cease to enjoy the life that is Life indeed.
2007-11-01 17:42:24
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answer #1
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answered by wefmeister 7
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It's one of those areas where you really need to read before and after the verses in question to establish the full context.
That is, since the chapter and verse divisions are not a part of the original text (and most Christians would not consider them to be "divinely inspired,) then verse 28 can:
1) either stand as an independent transitional statement that Matthew simply records between what Jesus had just said about the Second Coming and what is about to happen six days later on the Mount of Transfiguration;
2) be read to mean that those disciples who just heard Jesus speak about His Second Coming (when He, with His angels, returns at the end of the current age of grace) would also be the ones to see Jesus first come in to His kingdom (in a matter of days when they first see Him risen from the grave.)
The second is the more common view for one simple reason: Jesus' reign HAS been established here on earth already... in the hearts of those who have received Him. He has physically ascended into heaven to await the Father's word that the age of grace has ended, and then Jesus will rapture those believers alive at the end of the age so that the 7-year wrath of God (i.e., the Great Tribulation) can be poured out on those who have rejected Christ. Then, He physically returns to earth to destroy the Antichrist, his false prophet and those who received the Mark of the Beast; then Jesus will physically rule and reign on earth for a millennium.
In other words, v27's "...the Son of Man will come in the glory of His Father with His angels..." is a different, separate and later event from v28's "...the Son of Man coming in His kingdom” which, again, happened the moment He was resurrected (or argruably, the moment the veil of the temple was torn in two.)
The fact is, it is a "bible difficulty," no doubt, but one that does not render scripture to be unreliable.
2007-11-02 00:56:40
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answer #2
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answered by he_returns_soon 3
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Verse 27 is talking about the Second Coming, yes. 28 is also talking about the Second Coming. The "Son of Man coming in His kingdom" is talking about when Christ will come again, and reign on the Earth, aka, the SC. In 28 he is saying that some of those standing with Him will not taste of death until He comes again. We know through Latter Day Revelation that John the Beloved is still alive today, and walking the earth, as well as the 3 Nephites. This is what Christ is talking about in 28, as far as my understanding is.
2007-11-02 13:02:18
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answer #3
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answered by . 7
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This verse is also found in Luke 9:27. However I think when they decided where to put in the chapters and verses they made a mistake with Matthew 16:28. It really should be the first verse in chapter 17. If you notice Matthew 17:1 starts with and showing it is a continuation of Matthew 16:28. In Luke the following verses are not put in a separate chapter. So what does it mean when it says the Son of man coming in His Kingdom. If you read the next verses we see the transfiguration. When the disciples see Jesus transformed and in glory they see Him coming into His kingdom. A foretaste of His kingdom.
It is a simple error by the men who decided where to divide the various chapters. As you know, I hope, originally the Bible was not divided into chapters and verses. This was done in the early 13th century I think.
Read the version in Luke and you can see the flow and how this deals with the transfiguration.
Luke 9:27 But I tell you of a truth, there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God.
Luk 9:28 And it came to pass about an eight days after these sayings, he took Peter and John and James, and went up into a mountain to pray.
Luk 9:29 And as he prayed, the fashion of his countenance was altered, and his raiment was white and glistering.
Luk 9:30 And, behold, there talked with him two men, which were Moses and Elias:
Luk 9:31 Who appeared in glory, and spake of his decease which he should accomplish at Jerusalem.
So in answer to your question I do not believe this is talking about the second coming but about the transfiguration.
2007-11-02 00:32:54
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answer #4
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answered by Bible warrior 5
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The phrase 'see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom' is thought by some scholars to refer to the destruction of Jerusalem in CE 70. The 'coming' is a concept that not only meant blessing but also judgment and the destruction of Jerusalem can be seen as God's judgment on an unbelieving nation. This was an event showing Christ returning as judge in anticipation of the final judgment.
2007-11-02 00:44:58
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answer #5
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answered by cheir 7
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No, it is the transfiguration. According to redaction theory, the statement about tasting death followed by the transfiguration is is a single, independent piece of tradition. Verse 27 is talking about the apocalyptic judgment, verse 28 is contrasting that with the individual experience of the kingdom of God. That sounds ad hoc - but it is supported by the text. Jesus frequently contrasts the final, apocalyptic judgment with the immanent, individual experience of the Kingdom of God.
2007-11-02 00:41:07
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answer #6
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answered by NONAME 7
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John, the disciple that Jesus loved (the guy that wrote the book of John, 1, 2, and 3John, and Revelation) was present when this was said.
John witnessed the second coming in a vision and he recorded it in the book of Revelation.
Both verses are talking about the second coming.
2007-11-02 00:36:09
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answer #7
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answered by unworthychild 5
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The footnote in my bible explains it as:
The Son of man coming in his kingdom may refer to the event of Pentecost when Christ baptized His followers with the Holy Spirit.
But anyway, back up and read 16:24-28. Jesus was just telling them "For whosoever will save his life shall lose it: and whosoever will lose his life for my sake shall find it. For what is a man profited, if he shall gain the whole world, and lose his own soul? or what shall a man give in exchange for his soul?
2007-11-02 00:48:38
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answer #8
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answered by The Rock & Roll Doctor 6
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Peter - Many believe Jesus is referring either to (1) the transfiguration that follows in chapter 17 or; (2) his resurrection or (3) his Ascension. Few believe it has anything to do with his second coming - or for that matter - any or all of the three.
2007-11-02 00:41:17
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answer #9
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answered by trinity.tom333 3
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Because not all the signs have as yet been given. Such as The temple in Jerusalem, The two witnesses, and others. He will come as a thief in the night or you could say like the rain during Noah's time.
2007-11-02 00:36:43
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answer #10
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answered by saintrose 6
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