If Jesus was half-God when he walked the Earth, how was he able to die? and who woke him up from the dead?

Answer 1

he wasn't half God he was a perfect human like adam.
Jehovah woke him

Answer 2

Resurrection of Jesus: "24whom God raised up, having loosed the pangs of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it" (ASV)

Jesus was a man, a perfect man as Adam. He was therefore called the Last Adam by Paul to indicate this perfection as a man.

He was no more than a man -- to have been more would have invalidated his ransom -- it had to be equal -- exactly -- to what Adam lost.

Thus Jesus had eternal life in him as a man. Eternal life according to the Biblical teachings mean that you do not die, if and only if you have enough 1. water, 2. food, 3. air.

It means that if someone kills you with some instrument that is used with deadly force you die as would other people whether they are imperfect or not.

The immortality that Jesus was given when he was resurrected as a spirit being with a heavenly body meant that from that point on no matter what -- he cannot, could not die ever again.

If you need proof of how or in what body he was resurrected, go to the Jesus page on my homepage at my profile.

As some of the above state -- Jesus was God's son. As such he is a god, though not the Almighty God.

Answer 3

when Jesus died on the cross He was God in the flesh , which means that God came down to earth as a man leaving all His Power and Glory In Heaven which is with the Father . this is why Jesus, God the Son prayed to God the Father at times for the power to do what He had to do on the cross and through God's Holy Spirit which is From God the Father Jesus God the Son being fully human ,but still God had the power to do what He did. 1 God , God The Father ,God The Son and God The Holy Spirit ..... 3in1, 1in3

Answer 4

Jesus mission was to come to earth and die for the sins of man-kind......There had to be the Father's son's blood that redeemed us back to the Father. Man could not even go to heaven until Jesus shed his blood. This is just the way it is.
Then when Jesus died, the righteous old testament people went on to heaven, and we do when we die.....Man is so ignorant to much of what is going on. We must have faith without seeing, God blesses this kind of faith.
Jesus was not asleep when he died, he went to the Sheol where people were waiting until he died....he ministered to people there those three days he was gone.....All that happened I don't know. But he was not asleep.

Answer 5

He was not half God. he was completely God, and also completely man. Because He was completely man, He could die. Because He was completely God, He didn't need anyone to "wake Him up". He rose from the dead by His own power, just as He predicted He would.

Answer 6

No, Jesus was not "half-God". Jesus was true (100%) God and true (100%) Human Being. Jesus died because he was human. He did not "wake up" from the dead as if he was just asleep. He really died and God resurrected him.

Answer 7

God saw that the earth needed help so he sent Jesus (His Son) in form of God, sinless & loving. So just as he created all humans he created another him to wise these People up that were lost.

Answer 8

Jesus was not half God. He was fully God and fully man. As a man he was able to die. As a God he was able to defeat death and rise.

Answer 9

He was fully God and fully man? Where On Earth do people who Read the Bible find " THAT" verse?

Answer 10

*** rs p. 212 - p. 214 Jesus Christ ***

Does John 1:1 prove that Jesus is God?

John 1:1, RS: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God [also KJ, JB, Dy, Kx, NAB]." NE reads "what God was, the Word was." Mo says "the Logos was divine." AT and Sd tell us "the Word was divine." The interlinear rendering of ED is "a god was the Word." NW reads "the Word was a god"; NTIV uses the same wording.

What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying "the Word was God"? The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os´ (God) but not before the second. The articular (when the article appears) construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous (without the article) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) points to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus) was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather, that the Word was godlike, divine, a god. (See 1984 Reference edition of NW, p. 1579.)

What did the apostle John mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himself God or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: "No one ["no man," KJ, Dy] has ever seen God; the only Son ["the only-begotten god," NW], who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known." (RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ, the Son? Of course! So, then, was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Toward the end of his Gospel, John summarized matters, saying: "These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, [not God, but] the Son of God."-John 20:31, RS.

Does Thomas' exclamation at John 20:28 prove that Jesus is truly God?

John 20:28 (RS) reads: "Thomas answered him, 'My Lord and my God!'"

There is no objection to referring to Jesus as "God," if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus' own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as "gods." (John 10:34, 35, RS; Ps. 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (NW) Jesus is referred to as "the only-begotten god." (See also Ro, By.) Isaiah 9:6 (RS) also prophetically describes Jesus as "Mighty God," but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus' being described as "a god," or "divine," at John 1:1 (NW, AT).

The context helps us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus' death, Thomas had heard Jesus' prayer in which he addressed his Father as "the only true God." (John 17:3, RS) After Jesus' resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: "I am ascending . . . to my God and your God." (John 20:17, RS) After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: "These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name." (John 20:31, RS) So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas' exclamation that Jesus is himself "the only true God" or that Jesus is a Trinitarian "God the Son," he needs to look again at what Jesus himself said (vs. 17) and at the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (vs. 31).

Does Matthew 1:23 indicate that Jesus when on earth was God?

Matt. 1:23, RS: "'Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called Emman´u-el' (which means, God with us ["God is with us," NE])."

In announcing Jesus' coming birth, did Jehovah's angel say that the child would be God himself? No, the announcement was: "He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High." (Luke 1:32, 35, RS; italics added.) And Jesus himself never claimed to be God but, rather, "the Son of God." (John 10:36, RS; italics added.) Jesus was sent into the world by God; so by means of this only-begotten Son, God was with mankind.-John 3:17; 17:8.

It was not unusual for Hebrew names to include within them the word for God or even an abbreviated form of God's personal name. For example, Eli´athah means "God Has Come"; Jehu means "Jehovah Is He"; Elijah means "My God Is Jehovah." But none of these names implied that the possessor was himself God

Acts 10:40, 41: "God raised this One [Jesus Christ] up on the third day and granted him to become manifest, not to all the people, but to witnesses appointed beforehand by God." (Why did not others see him too? Because he was a spirit creature and when, as angels had done in the past, he materialized fleshly bodies to make himself visible, he did so only in the presence of his disciples.)