... and yet they always criticize the Jews and Christians for having the Torah and Bible changed/modified? I mean, whenever we ask Moslems back the foundation of that argument, Moslems always answer: "According to Mohammed..." or "It's written in Koran that..." or "Allah condemns them..."
Give me a break! Is there any archeological proof, or any logical argument here? And not such typical argument like because it's written in a book that or a figure (real or not) said that...? Without any strong evidence, those argument is kind of non-sensical one, isn't it?
2007-10-31 23:57:49 · 5 answers · asked by Professor Franklin 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Muslims dont need to prove that Jewish Torah and Christian Bible are not geniune anymore because what they believe in is that all Prophets and Messiah are muslims for they believe in One God. That is their premise and logic . So why prove it in the first place. Right now , we just have to believe in what we believe in as this is what real religion is. Once we start proving one's religion is the one and only, chaos and war begins. For as long as we respect one's belief or religion , we will be at peace with each other.......
So, my brother and friend, we dont need to prove something be it a religion or anything. As long as we believe and have in faith in anything , that is already a sign of proof that everthing is possible.
Just a piece of my opinion and belief. God Bless and Peace be with you.
2007-11-01 00:15:03 · answer #1 · answered by sebastian n 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
THE BIBLE ITSELF SAYS IT HAS BEEN CORRUPTED:
How do ye say, We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us? Lo, certainly in vain made he it; the pen of the scribes is in vain. (Bible Jeremiah 8:8)
It is still being changed today lets take a look for example lets take a look at Psalms 2:7:
In th KJV God says to David:
I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. (KJV Pslams 2:7)
Compare this with the NIV:
I will proclaim the decree of the LORD : He said to me, "You are my Son; today I have become your Father. (NIV Pslam 2:7)
Can you see the word BEGOTTEN is no longer there, I'm sure you understand the implication of the word BEGOTTEN. It would mean that Jesus and David were the BEGOTTEN Sons of God.
So which version of the Bible is correct KJV/ NIV?
EDIT:
And this is not mistranslation!
2007-11-01 07:09:18 · answer #2 · answered by By Any Means Necessary 5 · 7⤊ 4⤋
well its already a proven fact!!! , to be very brief and simple a genuine holy scripture cannot have different versions!! and u can search and find for your own self number of different versions of bible available,.,genuine employs that there are no changes from begining to end.. while u can see for your own self difference in topics/explanations/details in different versions of bible.
regards
Zahid Murtaza
2007-11-01 07:06:58 · answer #3 · answered by Baddo 1 · 2⤊ 3⤋
lol,just read them to believe muslims,read the bible and see how many contradictions are there
2007-11-01 07:00:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 3⤋
Because the KJV bible is Gods true word ....all others are false
2007-11-01 07:00:23 · answer #5 · answered by jesussaves 7 · 0⤊ 10⤋