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you say she was born without sin, so what book is that in? Have you read Romans 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God. Is this just dogma? Serious question because I am curious.

2007-10-31 22:13:54 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

the catholics: do star wars guy

2007-10-31 22:21:07 · update #1

WOW tariq that is amazing I did not know it said that in the quran. Although I don't beleive it but It would make sense that is where the catholics go it from. But your both still wrong.

2007-10-31 22:24:27 · update #2

12 answers

Mary, the mother of Jesus, a real woman. We believe that she was a fine woman, because God chose her for a very special task which would bring her to prominence and cause her to be held up as an example. There is, however, no reason to believe that she was conceived without sin, because after the birth of Christ we find her in the temple offering a sacrifice for her purification (Luke 2:22-24). This is the same action that all the Hebrew women took after childbirth (Leviticus 12). In addition, in her prayer of thanksgiving for being chosen to be the mother of Christ, Mary calls God my Savior (Luke 1:47). Had she been born without sin, she would not have needed either an offering for purification, or a savior.
The church of Rome teaches that Mary should be called the mother of God, an expression that is never used in the Bible. The reasoning is that she is the Mother of Jesus Christ, and He is God. While at first glance the reasoning sounds acceptable, if she were the mother of God, we would have to conclude that the creature was the mother of the creator: that is that Mary, who was born at a particular moment of history, was the mother of everything about God which has existed from all eternity (Genesis 1:1; John 1:1-3, 14).

We need to be careful what we hear and what we are told and taught. The truth is always there but the false church is always trying to fool and deceive anyone who is not awake

2007-10-31 22:32:47 · answer #1 · answered by Wally 6 · 1 2

Imran 49 speaks of what you ask for
The Chapter The family Al Imran

45 When the angels said : 'O Mary! Allah gives the tidings of the birth of a son to you who will be known as the Messiah Jesus, son of Mary, distinguished in this world and in the Hereafter, and blessed with Allah's propinquity!

... and keep reading inshAllah Tahala Amin

2007-11-01 05:50:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Just read the first chapter of Luke, The WHOLE thing and give your attn. to verses 46 to 55. with rom 3:23 consider ,Mariam (Mary) from vs. 47",,,:My soul magnifies the Lord, And my spirit has rejoiced in God MY SAVIOR.,,, Now consider immaculate,=perfect,= without spot,= clean, =SINLESS! Well then were is Mary's need for God, her SAVIOR? Were they not HER words? So it is obvious the Roman Catholic church LIED,,,PERIOD,,now you show them,,,you BASH them, hate them etc. Dogma is another word for ABSOLUTE,,,INFALLIBLE,,, but does this overrule scripture? I think not! Now they teach "the church has the LASTword,,,not scripture Check for yourself,

2007-11-01 05:47:13 · answer #3 · answered by hamoh10 5 · 3 1

Baptist, you are right. Mary was a special woman(highly favored and the Lord w/ her Luke1:28). She was picked by God to carry our Lord but no human is sinless. Even Mary needed Jesus Christ for salvation. God loves and provided salvation for each one of us, even the person who thinks they are the worst sinner and the one who thinks he is a good person. All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. thank God for his love, demonstrated in Christ Jesus!

2007-11-01 14:06:11 · answer #4 · answered by annamarie 3 · 1 1

Fr. Joseph has given you the Catholic answer. I will add just one more thing. You ask for scripture, Catholics do not hold to the idea of Bible only. We Catholics hold that apostolic teaching is equal to scripture. The Bible itself does not support the idea of scripture only.

2 Thessalonians 2 (King James Version)
15Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been taught, whether by word, or our epistle.

2007-11-01 09:49:49 · answer #5 · answered by Adoptive Father 6 · 0 3

Quran tells that she was selected by God and was pious. Read it:


33 Indeed Allah exalted Adam, Nuh (Noah), the family of Ibrahim (Abraham) and the family of Imran above all the worlds.
34 They were the off-springs of one another. Allah hears all and knows all.
35 Allah heard when the wife of Imran said, "O my Rabb! I dedicate to Your service what is in my womb. Please accept it from me. You alone hear all and know all."
36 When she gave birth to a girl instead of a boy, she said: "My Rabb! I have given birth to a girl," - Allah knew very well what she had delivered - "and that the male is not like the female, I have named her Maryem (Mary) and I seek Your protection for her and her children from the mischief of Shaitan, the accursed."
37 Her Rabb graciously accepted that girl. He made her grow up as a good girl and entrusted her to the care of Zakariya. Whenever Zakariya entered the sanctuary to see her, he found with her food. He asked, "O Maryem! From where did you get it?" She replied, "It came from Allah. In fact, Allah gives to whom He wants without measure."

2007-11-01 05:20:39 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

They are brain washed with out scripture .I worked with a guy and he asked me about mary ,and I said what about her ? She was a sinner being obedient . He replied , " Whoa ,whoa , Mary ? Jesus mother ? You have the devil speaking in you .

2007-11-01 06:19:01 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Now let's look at the issue of Mary's sinless nature. Consider that when the angel addresses Mary at the annunciation, the greeting is almost a name change:

"Hail, thou that art highly favored, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women" (Luke 1:28, KJV).

Mary (Miriam in Hebrew) means "beloved." In biblical times a person's name reflected what they were. Name changes have great theological significance in the Bible and this is almost as if her name is being changed from "beloved" to "thou that art highly favored." Since this is before Jesus has been conceived, to what is the angel referring? No doubt to her singular devotion to God, forsaking all earthly distractions and desecrations, and the fact that she had been conceived without sin in preparation for this event.

Being conceived without sin does not mean that Mary had no need of a redeemer. In fact, like every descendant of Adam, Mary had vital need of a redeemer. Mary's freedom from original sin was an unmerited gift of God in that she was redeemed by Christ at the moment of her conception. It is at the moment of conception that God creates the soul and hers was created in a state of sanctifying grace. If you had the opportunity to create your mother, wouldn't you make her perfect in every way? This is why there are the doctrines of the perpetual virginity and Immaculate Conception of Mary.

Jesus refers to Mary's sinless nature when He addresses her as "woman" in John 2:4 and 19:26. Today, one looks at Him addressing her in this manner and thinks this is disrespectful or that He is admonishing her. In fact, Mary was not the first sinless woman, Adam's wife was also created sinless. When she was first created, Adam named her "woman" (Genesis 2:23). It was after the fall, when she was no longer sinless, that her name was changed to "Eve" (Genesis 3:20). By referring to Mary as "woman," Jesus is recognizing her sinless nature. Like I said earlier, name changes in Holy Scripture are important.


In Christ
Fr. Joseph

2007-11-01 05:28:24 · answer #8 · answered by cristoiglesia 7 · 2 2

Who said she was born without sin?

2007-11-01 05:18:07 · answer #9 · answered by SDW 6 · 0 1

where did you hear that she was born wittout sin? the only one born without sin is Jesus and mary was his mother...maybe you jsut got confused but mary was not born without sin.

2007-11-01 05:26:35 · answer #10 · answered by tinkerbell 2 · 1 2

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