If you were Jesus, the Son of God ... how long would you allow Satan to have his way with your own mother?
For everyone ... and if you had the power to prevent it ... how long would you allow Satan to have his way with your own mother?
2007-10-31 21:50:44 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
kissybertha - Mary was preserved from all sin from the moment of her conception, so she could be the holy tabernacle of the son of the Most High. This was a privilege God granted to her, that was absolutely necessary if her son, whose flesh came from her flesh, was to be the Messiah. If Jesus' flesh had EVER been stained by sin in ANY way, than Satan would have had a cliam on him, just as Satan has on every sinner. IN that case, Jesus' mission would have been over even before it began, and Satan would still be the ruler of this world.
2007-10-31 22:36:33 · update #1
baptist - Jesus never sinned. Evidently ALL doesn't mean ALL ... after ALL.
2007-10-31 22:38:16 · update #2
sirwilliam - The terms "full of grace" and "highly favored one" both refer to one whose soul is already a temple of the Holy Spirit, and full to overlowing with God's sanctifying grace.
Nobody since Adam and Eve had received such "favor" from God, until Mary, who received it from the moment of her conception, for the purpose of OUR salvation.
2007-10-31 22:41:45 · update #3
sentinel - You obvioulsy understand the truth. It seems as though some of our reponders thought I was referring to some sort of a sexual issue here, when all I was talking about was plain old sin ... sin of ANY kind.
2007-10-31 22:55:37 · update #4
william B - I read your profile. So much for your claim about being non-judgmental.
When did you become an authority on what is and what is not authentically Catholic?
2007-10-31 23:00:44 · update #5
MARY WAS NOT WITHOUT SIN. THERE IS NO HUMAN WITHOUT SIN.... SHE WAS A VIRGIN AND GOD PLANTED THE SEED. In you response...... God cleared Mary of sin from fornication! this is what people who are not married do, since she and Joseph were not married at the time people thought they had premarital sex! It is the faith that God wanted a son to forgive us of our sins, so he impregnated Mary who was a virgin it is called the Immaculant conception because there was NO sexual activity to conceive this child. she was not sin free! read your bible again! this is why Jesus was born!!! his blood was shed on the cross to wash away all of our sins because... we are not without sin! this includes mary.
2007-10-31 21:54:19 · answer #1 · answered by kissybertha 6 · 7⤊ 12⤋
You are right again! The immaculate conception people if you would take the time to read means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or it's stain-that's what "immaculate means:without stain. The essence of original sin consists of the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and it's stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God's grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings. And their is so much more to learn. Seek, and you shall find. Go to Catholic questions and answers and you will find much more on the subject. God could of course prevent Satan from coming into any contact with his mother, and he did.
2007-11-01 07:42:49 · answer #2 · answered by Brenda M 4 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Good point.
When the angel Gabriel called Mary, "Full of grace," Mary was already full of grace.
When the angel Gabriel said, "The Lord is with you," the Lord was already with her.
The Blessed Virgin Mary was in a state of grace before she says "yes" to the angel's question and before the Holy Spirit came upon her for a different purpose.
When did Mary's state of grace begin?
Catholics believe this state of grace was with Mary since her Immaculate Conception. This means that Mary was conceived in the normal way (not like Jesus) but that she did not inherit original sin.
With the grace of God and without the effects of original Sin, we believe that Mary did not commit personal sin at any time during her life.
God prepared her for her later role as the mother of Jesus.
Catholics celebrate this miracle on December 8 as the Feast of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.
For more information, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church, section 490 and following: http://www.nccbuscc.org/catechism/text/pt1sect2chpt2art3p2.htm#490
With love in Christ.
2007-11-04 15:24:49 · answer #3 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If God could prevent someone from sinning, then the cross is void.
The Cross is rediculous and worthless if he didn't need to do it!
Read my question:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=ApaEi.DmjQT1UlV_Z5DSthTsy6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20071023093338AAaqmTw
We are the temple's of God, the new Ark Of the Covenant is a picture of Jesus, not of any other.
Mary was very special, and obviously God payed close attention to who he placed his son inside of. He was not her Genetics, and he had a body prepared for him. (Hebrews and Psalms)
All had been tainted by Original sin, except for the second Adam, that is Jesus who was made perfect and without original sin.
Otherwise, he could have reset the system and we wouldn't have needed the cross.
You know how deep you are in it, by the length of the rope that pulls you out!
Jesus had to die for my sins, and everyone elses, he is my rope and I am holding fast!
2007-11-01 04:38:09 · answer #4 · answered by Adopted 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You are quite correct but I see that your point has been lost on many of the answerer`s,sin means that we are in bondage to the devil and only the death and resurrection of Christ freed us from this bondage,if Mary was not sinless then it implies that God came down and dwelt in the womb of someone in bondage to Satan and sin which God would never have allowed to happen, so Mary was preserved from the stain of original sin while still in the womb of Anna Her Mother.
2007-10-31 22:48:05 · answer #5 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 12⤊ 0⤋
To kissyber. Catholic, Orthodox Christian and Muslim doctrine preach/teach that the Blessed Virgin Mary never sinned.
2007-10-31 22:05:18 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 8⤊ 0⤋
Sentinal said:
...sin means that we are in bondage to the devil and only the death and resurrection of Christ freed us from this bondage,if Mary was not sinless then it implies that God came down and dwelt in the womb of someone in bondage to Satan and sin which God would never have allowed to happen, so Mary was preserved from the stain of original sin while still in the womb of Anna Her Mother.
I reply:
I wholeheartidly agree. Gen 3:15 "I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall cursh thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel."
Enmity means that God will put a deep hatred between the 'woman' and Satan. To sin is to be on Satan's side. Therefore, Mary was never in bondage to sin.
God Bless
Robin
2007-11-01 02:26:47 · answer #7 · answered by Robin 3 · 8⤊ 0⤋
How could anyone think that Jesus could come from a tainted mother?
Mary is the New Eve.
Mary is the New Ark of the Covenant.
2007-11-01 01:52:12 · answer #8 · answered by Vernacular Catholic 3 · 10⤊ 2⤋
24 Chromosomes. 23 from Mary and one to make Jesus male.
2016-05-26 06:21:37 · answer #9 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is Faith so let us believe also.
Faith Moves mountains and keeps the Papal Kingdom in business.Could be symbolic and no one has been allowed to know the Truth.
Mary,s Son showed humanity one more road to salvation but some of his closest disciples formed a syndicate and conveniently bent his basic teachings.He was to the people of Judah what Gandhi Ji is to us today.
2007-10-31 22:05:34 · answer #10 · answered by GoaSon 1 · 0⤊ 5⤋
He'd drop to the floor in an instant.I had a loving mother, so did Jesus.
2007-10-31 22:37:56 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋