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its a history qustion about thomes jefferson \

PLZ ANSWER TO THE RIGHT ANSWERS

THANX

2007-10-30 10:07:06 · 3 answers · asked by zarifa 2 2 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

Locke definitely had an influence in the wording, and some of the "theory", but it's important to see how that was connected with OTHER political and historical ideas of that time. (If you can bear with me, the LAST section below makes this clear in the very words of the participants.)
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First, it appears that some folks --not you-- are confused about applying the term "preamble" to the Declaration. This is probably because they are so accustomed to hearing about THE "Preamble" to the Constitution, and do not actually know the meaning of the word.

To clarify, a "preamble" is simply an introductory section, esp. that to a statute or other legal document (such as a constitutino), which announces the REASONS and INTENT of what follows.
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/preamble

For the Declaration, compare:
http://candst.tripod.com/doi-pream.htm
http://www.wfu.edu/~zulick/340/Declaration.html

(Also note that Jefferson was in France when the Constitution was written, and was not too keen on the whole thing, so had NOTHING to do with its writing. Thus a question about Locke's influence on Jefferson in writing the Constitution makes no sense!)

There is a slight quibble about whether to include the very first sentence of the Declaration as "preamble", but at any rate, the HEART of the preamble is to lay out the underlying argument, before providing a detailed list of the king's alleged abuses that justify this Declaration.
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Now, about the "Lockean ideas" -- here they are, but DO observe the notes below if you wish to understand both how the Declaration was and was NOT "inspired by them"... and how Locke's OWN ideas were not entirely original.

The clearest "Lockean" ideas in the Preamble:

1) people are created with certain basic RIGHTS - most often Locke and his followers list these as "life, liberty and property". But there was also another, connected esp. with the last one, concerning the rights of the individual to be free to try to better their lot in life (to acquire property, etc.), which they might refer to as "happiness".

2) The authority for government comes from the PEOPLE, also expressed as GOVERNMENT exists 'by the consent of the governed'. This is the 'social contract' theory of government and it not only explains the theoretical foundations of government. It also saves as the basis for CHANGING governments (including by 'rebellion'). Of course, it undercuts the old "divine right of kings" idea.
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But there is a great tendency to think that ALL this came directly from Locke --even that the whole Declaration is simply an expression of ideas Locke (and perhaps some other Enlightenment thinkers) came up with. Not so!

Please note the following

1) First, the Declaration itself is not straight from Locke --
The argument of the Declaration's Preamble is NOT original with this document -- as a matter of fact, Jefferson drew freely on the ideas and some of the wording of OTHER colonial documents, esp. recently written state Constitution. The clearest borrowings are from the Virginia State Constitution -- Jefferson himself had drafted the "grievance list" in it, and George Mason had drafted the "(Virginia) Declaration of Rights", which includes the sort of material found in the "Bill of Rights" of various state constitutions, and eventually, in the U.S. Constitution. Toward the beginning of theses, Mason includes the same argument as the Declaration's preamble -- and note that he includes BOTH "property" and the (pursuit of) happiness. (In fact, his wording clarifies what Jefferson had in mind by the latter -- it was not so much "self-fulfillment" but the opportunity to make one's fortune, to improve one's lot.)
http://odur.let.rug.nl/%7Eusa/D/1776-1800/independence/virdor.htm see paragraphs I - III.

2) Your focus on the preamble alerts us to the fact that the MAIN part of the document -- the list of specific 'abuses' used to justify the declaration itself -- was rooted NOT in Locke but in British Constitutional history, esp. in the "English Bill of Rights" of 1689. This document, which justifies the "Glorious Revolution" (Parliament's removing James II in favor of William and Mary), argues from a similar list of abuses by the King.
http://www.yale.edu/lawweb/avalon/england.htm

As a formal LEGAL document --NOT a philosophical treatise-- the Declaration is rooted much more on the British Constitutional and legal precedents than on Locke's theories.

Note then that the underlying argument of the English Bill of Rights (and its predecessors back to Magna Carta) is NOT from Locke, but a development of British Constitutional thought and practice through the centuries. The 'rights of Englishmen' was a key argument in England, esp. among the Puritan and Whig leaders of 17th century England, and later in the colonies, quite apart from Locke. (Note that all these things were going on in England at PRECISELY the time the American colonies were being established -- they brought it with them!)

3) Actually, Locke himself was writing at the TIME of the "Glorious Revolution". So his theories themselves drew on and were shaped by these historical influences. Not only so, but several OTHER strands of thought and ideas about how government should work played into the ideas expressed by Revolution writers (including in the Declaration). For example, the Puritans (esp those who founded New England) had a theological idea of "covenant" which they applied to their LOCAL church and civil government "covenants" and "compacts", that depended heavily on the PEOPLE's participation ('consent of the governed').

In other words, though Locke helped explain SOME of the larger theory of government, and though his LANGUAGE certainly is reflected in the Declaration of Independence (and many other places), it worked together with OTHER ideas (some of which Locke himself borrowed).

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A classic study of how these various strands came together in Revolutionary era thought is Bernard Bailyn's work *The Ideological Origins of the Declaration*

BUT it's even better to see that the people who ISSUED the Declaration of Independence THEMSELVES appealed to all of these as interconnected. In fact, the members of the FIRST Continental Congress *explicitly* connected the (Lockean) 'universal rights' with these other historical events and traditions in their "Declaration and Resolves" of October 1774.

Read the whole at the following link, but note especially how they introduce the argument we see in the preamble to the Decl of Ind. (note esp what I have put in CAPS) and the HISTORY they base their "rights" claims on:

". . . the deputies so appointed being now assembled, in a full and free representation of these colonies, taking into their most serious consideration, the best means of attaining the ends aforesaid, do, in the first place, AS ENGLISHMEN, THEIR ANCESTORS IN LIKE CASES HAVE USUALLY DONE, for asserting and vindicating their rights and liberties, DECLARE,

That the inhabitants of the English colonies in North-America, BY THE IMMUTABLE LAWS OF NATURE, THE PRINCIPLES OF THE ENGLISH CONSTITUTION, AND THE SEVERAL CHARTERS OR COMPACTS, have the following RIGHTS:

Resolved, N.C.D. 1. That they are entitled to life, liberty and property: and they have never ceded to any foreign power whatever, a right to dispose of either without their consent.

Resolved, N.C.D. 2. That our ancestors, who first settled these colonies, were at the time of their emigration from the mother country, entitled to all the rights, liberties, and immunities of free and natural- born subjects, within the realm of England. . . ."

[It continues with specific "rights" to trial by jury, etc., etc., and a list of their grievances -- a familiar structure by now I trust -- asking the Parliament to please correct these matters.

http://www.yale.edu/lawweb/avalon/resolves.htm

2007-11-01 04:48:39 · answer #1 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 0 0

yes locke did inspire thomas jefferson but it is not the preamble to the declaration. If I remember correctly there is no preamble on there, it is the U.S. constitution that your thinking of. Locke inspire jefferson on using the theory of having a three group system where they use checks and balances to make sure that one part is not greater than the other. Other than that is was Volitare and Rosseau who really influenced the political thinking of the forefathers.

2007-10-30 11:12:38 · answer #2 · answered by punkrockerforever 4 · 0 0

Wasn't it the Preamble to the Constitution NOT the Declaration of Independance? I don't believe the Declaration had a Preamble.

2007-10-30 10:20:09 · answer #3 · answered by jstjen71 4 · 0 1

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