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i am confused of about the different reason of the building of Escorial and the building of Versailles and the connection to absolutism. Can someone PLEASE HELP.. with details that would acutally make sense.. thanks

2007-10-30 10:04:49 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

2 answers

I don't know about the "Escorial", but am somewhat familiar with Versailles, and the reasons for its construction.

Louis 14th - without question the greatest of all french monarchs - constructed the Versailles Palace for two primary purposes:

(1) to coral his nobility, castrate them in terms of political power, and bind them to him with golden chains so as to quell their objections to being castrated.

(2) to intimidate all the rest of the European powers - in which he succeeded admirably - and impress the entire world - again, which he succeeded admirably.

I could be mistaken, but I believe the "Escorial" was a palace, castle built by the Austro/Spanish Hapsburg ruler, Charles 5th, probably for a similar reason to that of Louis 14th construction of Versailles.

Right? Wrong? Will keep tabs on your answer to see.

2007-10-30 10:23:24 · answer #1 · answered by Alberich 7 · 0 0

wotan is entirely correct, and you should award him best answer. The only thing is that Charles V of Austria abdicated in 1555, divided his realms, and awarded Spain to his relative Philip II. Also, Philip ruled during the 1500's, Louis XIV died in 1715.

2007-10-30 10:34:00 · answer #2 · answered by steve_geo1 7 · 1 0

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