One of my Islamic lady friend wants to separate from her husband. I took her to a lawyer and he had advised her to file a petition under Muslim Dissolution of Marriage act and advised that it is only the remedy and can not prononuce talak like muslim male members. But the Local Jamath prepared a divorce memorandum known as Kulla and sent to her husband dissoving the marriage. Which is the correct position? If this easy method is available why should that act was enacted?
2007-10-30
02:33:08
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6 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics