JW's: Jevohah in the New Testament?

Question

Why did you change the word Lord to Jehovah in the New Testament when the name Jehovah was never used in the original Greek manuscripts of the New Testament?

Moises_Frias - typical JW response. Attack something else and avoid the issue. I expect nothing less.

Moises_Frias - And yes I know that verse is thought to have been added.

Moises_Frias - So you are saying an altered Bible should not be used. Such as the NWT version the JW's have written that puts the word Jehovah into the New Testament when it was not there originally?

Answer 1

No valid reason... Part of their claimed support for it is a Hebrew translation of the New Testament done very early in this era which uses the TETRAGRAMMATON (YHWH, the Hebrew "name" of God, related to "I AM") to translate "kurios" several times... but it ALSO uses the TETRAGRAMMATON 109 times when it refers to Jesus... Of course they are not uniform in applying their "rule."

Answer 2

It's my understanding that the name was removed in the second century. It stands to reason that when the apostles or Jesus quoted from the OT where YHWH was used, that a similar reference should be made in the NT. According to Jerome of the 4th century, Mathew who was a Levi, composed a gospel in Hebrew for the benefit of the Hebrew believers. At that time he said a copy was in the library at Caesarea, collected by the matyr Pamphilus. Whether or not it exists to this day, I'm not sure.

Answer 3

How do you know? were you there? something written 1900 years ago?

What bible are you using? the one that added the verse of 1 John 5:7 that is false? cause you know that verse is false, right?

1 John 5:7 "For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one"


that was added three centuries after the bible was wrote, it is removed in serious bible, can you explain me why you quoted me from a bible that was altered?

if My bible has one letter added your one has 32 letters added.

Matthew 7:3 "Why, then, do you look at the straw in your brother’s eye, but do not consider the rafter in your own eye?

4 Or how can you say to your brother, ‘Allow me to extract the straw from your eye’; when, look! a rafter is in your own eye?

5 Hypocrite! First extract the rafter from your own eye, and then you will see clearly how to extract the straw from your brother’s eye.

First explain and fix the error in your bible instead of being telling that the other are wrong.

Answer 4

Is Jehovah in the “Old Testament” Jesus Christ in the “New Testament”?

Matt. 4:10: “Jesus said to him: ‘Go away, Satan! For it is written, “It is Jehovah [“the Lord,” KJ and others] your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.”’” (Jesus was obviously not saying that he himself was to be worshiped.)

John 8:54: “Jesus answered [the Jews]: ‘If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my Father that glorifies me, he who you say is your God.’” (The Hebrew Scriptures clearly identify Jehovah as the God that the Jews professed to worship. Jesus said, not that he himself was Jehovah, but that Jehovah was his Father. Jesus here made it very clear that he and his Father were distinct individuals.)

Ps. 110:1: “The utterance of Jehovah to my [David’s] Lord is: ‘Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.’” (At Matthew 22:41-45, Jesus explained that he himself was David’s “Lord,” referred to in this psalm. So Jesus is not Jehovah but is the one to whom Jehovah’s words were here directed.)

Phil. 2:9-11: “For this very reason also God exalted him [Jesus Christ] to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father. [Dy reads: “ . . . every tongue should confess that the Lord Jesus Christ is in the glory of God the Father.” Kx and CC read similarly, but a footnote in Kx acknowledges: “ . . . the Greek is perhaps more naturally rendered ‘to the glory,’” and NAB and JB render it that way.]” (Notice that Jesus Christ is here shown to be different from God the Father and subject to Him.)

Answer 5

Way to go Papa love ur answer as I was going to put the same thing from the Reasoning from the Scriptures book. You said it very well.

Answer 6

It wasn’t changed; Lord is still in there were it was meant to be. God was changed to Jehovah because the original scrolls used God’s name, not “God.”

Answer 7

No, there is nowhere in the Bible that Jehovah is the only name. Especially in the NT.. Of course, NWT is different. But you can hardly call it a Bible. None of the translators had formal training in the Biblical languages.

Answer 8

JW's: when NT uses Lord for Jesus, it uses the same word that it being used in LXX for Yahweh: kurios! Now, why would Jesus want everybody to call him Sir! Sir! Where they in the army or something? Of course not! He is not Sir Jesus Christ, but LORD Jesus Christ or better Adonai/Yahweh Jesus Christ!

Answer 9

He's right:

Jehovah occurs 4 times in 4 verses:

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Exd 6:3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by [the name of] God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Psa 83:18 That [men] may know that thou, whose name alone [is] JEHOVAH, [art] the most high over all the earth.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Isa 12:2 Behold, God [is] my salvation; I will trust, and not be afraid: for the LORD JEHOVAH [is] my strength and [my] song; he also is become my salvation.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Isa 26:4 Trust ye in the LORD for ever: for in the LORD JEHOVAH [is] everlasting strength: