Don't they have many "dead-end" theories?
2007-10-29 12:23:29 · 4 answers · asked by cindy2u2005 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
No, not really. The Indo-European languages are a well established group (btw, they don't all come from Sanskrit, but it and ancient Greek and ancient Latin were some of the earliest daughter languages of proto-Indo-European).
There are many non-IE languages spoken in Eurasia. Even if one accepts the Nostratic hypothesis most of the major Asian languages are still not related to IE.
It is simply not sufficient to say that because several languages both use a word similar to "ma" for "mother" (like Arabic, Mandarin, and English) that therefore means that they are related. The Science of linguistics does not work like that...
2007-10-29 13:09:46 · answer #1 · answered by Thejane T 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
To add to Thejane's answer... The Indo-European languages include most languages of Europe, the languages of the northern subcontinent, like Sanskrit, Hindi-Urdu, Panjabi, Slavic languages like Russian, and Iranian languages like Pashto. Most Asian languages are not included.
2007-10-29 15:11:42 · answer #2 · answered by ganesh 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, I don't how true is this, but some people say that Sanskrit is the Great grandmother of all Romance languages, including the Latin.
2007-10-29 12:29:51 · answer #3 · answered by Javy 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, they come from the indo-european family of languages.
2007-10-29 12:49:39 · answer #4 · answered by Elaine P...is for Poetry 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋