someone just told me this.
2007-10-28 12:57:51 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I'm glad that Jesus came and made a New one.
2007-10-28 12:58:14 · update #1
Actually, the story where the "man of God" offered up his daughters for rape is not quite that. This man, Lot, was not a man of God. in fact, he was punished for living in such an evil land (he lived in Soddom). And incest is forbidden. Please, before you answer questions, make sure you know what you're talking about
2007-10-28 13:11:38 · answer #1 · answered by flipper10 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes, it does... In Genesis and Judges, men of god offered up their daughters or other women for men to rape rather than have their "guests" (men in one case, angels in the other) "humiliated" by gay sex.
In Judges the woman was actually raped to death and her "master" carved her into 12 parts and sent the pieces all over Israel.
Heck, Abraham (Abram, at the time) let two separate kings have his wife to spare his own sorry @ss.
Just a little bit of O.T. morality for ya.
Edit: You would think "angels of god" could have prevented the rape of Lots daughters?
Not to mention, telling them not to get daddy drunk so they could have sex with him too.
Who can believe this crap???
2007-10-28 20:05:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Permitted can't say that remember reading anything along these lines.
2007-10-28 20:02:31 · answer #3 · answered by S.O.S. 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I dont think rape is permitted in any religion.
2007-10-28 20:01:32 · answer #4 · answered by Sasuke 2 · 4⤊ 0⤋
I can think of one story off the top of my head. But the brothers of the girl killed the rapist.
2007-10-28 20:04:49 · answer #5 · answered by just because 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, rape and murder, according to God’s Law, are punishable by death. That’s old testment ... book of Deuteronomy will document that for you.
2007-10-28 20:07:41 · answer #6 · answered by David G 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
It wouldn't surprise me in the least if it did. I mean, slavery and incest were OK. And what is the point of that incredibly long answer? It doesn't really answer the question.
2007-10-28 20:06:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
no
it does say if a woman does not "scream" it is considered consentual.
2007-10-28 20:01:52 · answer #8 · answered by Gomakawitnessofjesus 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Where's is that in the OT?
2007-10-28 20:04:16 · answer #9 · answered by Subconsciousless 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Sure, why not? It's not like God WROTE the bible.
2007-10-28 20:01:37 · answer #10 · answered by Tren Lau 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋