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2007-10-27 11:49:01 · 5 answers · asked by lightbulb627 1 in Arts & Humanities History

5 answers

Overwelming superiority in men, resources, material, air power, and industrial might....from the Ukraine to the car factories in middle America.....

2007-10-27 19:26:01 · answer #1 · answered by Its not me Its u 7 · 0 1

This to me is an easy question to answer. How the Allies were able to eventually able to win WW2 in 1945 was because it was just about the WHOLE WORLD against 3 other Countries!! Hitler had Germany, Italy and Japan go too far too fast and the U.S., England and the rest just took their time and did beat them back!!!

2007-10-27 20:40:19 · answer #2 · answered by backyardbum 5 · 0 0

In the simplest terms; it came down to industry & resources. We had more of both.

the Industrial capacity of America was far greater; and was untouchable by enemy forces- unlike the factories in Germany that could be bombed.

But the Russians, who bore a terrible price relocated factories out of bomber range in the Urals; and kept throwing men at the Germans until the Germans were defeated by the greatest General known to Russia- winter. And the Russians were able to build powerful tanks; enough to start pushing the Germans back, while the Americans and British kept pressure with bombing raids on factories and industry; and then the invasion of Normandy.

2007-10-27 18:57:16 · answer #3 · answered by jared_e42 5 · 1 1

In one word: Russia. While the west had all the resources neccessary for a static war, Russia had employed ints factories successfully, especially after Stalingrad in 1943. Once this was done, it was merely a matter of time before the USSR smashed Germany..

2007-10-29 18:01:03 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Superior industrial resources and more manpower

2007-10-28 02:02:56 · answer #5 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0 1

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