He is 67 and already on disability. The tumor was in his mouth. He can't speak. So, I, as his wife would like to be his payee.
2007-10-26 09:42:13 · 4 answers · asked by Charlene H 1 in Health ➔ Diseases & Conditions ➔ Other - Diseases
if he is unable to speak, and has not been trained in sign language, then yes he is fully disabled.
2007-10-26 09:52:17 · answer #1 · answered by essentiallysolo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your husband, of corse, cant speak anymore, right? so jsut tell him to write what he can say on a piece of paper etc., and if he can write, you will be talking like u had done in the beginning, right? My great grandpa couldn't talk (now he can) but we used some sighn language or paper
2007-10-26 10:05:35 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
There's a lengthy process for that. Your insurance company or social services office can tell you how to start that process.
2007-10-26 10:08:57 · answer #3 · answered by Lisa 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It seems there should not be any problem in getting this.
Good luck!
2007-10-26 09:49:11 · answer #4 · answered by aWellWisher 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋