This is another example of how poorly thought out and edited the bible really is. The list of totally opposite statements in the bible is as long as your arm. Again, I see that the fundies have run and hid.....this means you asked another good one.
2007-10-26 08:28:23
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answer #1
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answered by Milepost 6
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In Deuteronomy (Old Testament times) divorce was permitted because of hardness of heart. In Exodus 21:10-11 divorce is permitted for neglect. This includes, emotional, physical, and mental. It also includes abuse, as abuse is severe neglect. Of course, adultery is included.
When the Bible appears to contradict itself by saying that divorce is wrong except in cases of adultery, in the New Testament, it actually isn't. You have to look at it from the point of view of a Jew in that time. The leaders of that time had taken the Old Testament teachings on divorce and twisted them into meaning that you can be divorced for any cause, such as you thought your spouse looked ugly that day, or you had a wrinkle and your spouse didn't like it. This was the "any cause" divorce law. When the Pharisees asked, "Is it lawful to divorce for any cause?" they were referring to the any cause law. NOT that you could never get divorced.
2007-10-26 08:32:48
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answer #2
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answered by actionbo09 2
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Mk 10:8 gives you the answer. If you read about the Jews in the wilderness, you will see just how hardhearted they were. Later on in the history of the Jews, the men used their right to divorce to take women of other religions and nations and left their original wives to fend for themselves and their children. God made sure those men paid for doing that.
2007-10-26 08:41:20
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answer #3
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answered by quaver 4
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Why did you leave out the part about if there were some uncleanness in her?
If you're not even going to consider the words that Jesus answered to the Pharisees when they tempted him with this same question, what makes you think that a "fundie" is going to have an answer to suit you?
It was because of the hardness of their hearts that the precept was given. In fact, Jesus was saying that they took it as a precept, when it was merely a way to keep them from acting out the hardness of their hearts toward their wives.
2007-10-26 08:32:49
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answer #4
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answered by hisgloryisgreat 6
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It doesn't mean God approves of it, which is why he can't go back to her.
24:1 When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: (a) then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give [it] in her hand, and send her out of his house.
(a) By this God does not approve light divorcement, but permits it to avoid further inconvenience; (Matthew 19:7).
24:4 Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is (b) defiled; for that [is] abomination before the LORD: and thou shalt not cause the land to sin, which the LORD thy God giveth thee [for] an inheritance.
(b) Seeing that by divorcing her he judged her to be unclean and defiled.
2007-10-26 08:28:45
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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When was the last time your momma told you not to crap in your diapers?
Rules change as you grow older and can take on more responsibility.
2007-10-26 08:58:00
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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you aren't telling the entire story in Dt.
Tell the whole thing and don't decieve people
There is a price topay for false teaching you know........
2007-10-26 08:25:15
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answer #7
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answered by kenny p 7
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displeases means cheats on him...that is the only meaning to that word. otherwise divorce is wrong
2007-10-26 08:23:29
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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all sin is wrong but ppl can repent..and there are extenuating circumstances sometimes....chauvanism, impotence, abuse etc
2007-10-26 08:29:55
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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