Is there anywhere in the bible where it approves of homosexuality?

Answer 1

Yes. Jesus healed the male slave of a Roman officer; there's currently a debate about the exact translation of the term that's been rendered as "slave". It might have meant "slave" in the sense of a male concubine.

If that's the case, then Jesus had no problem whatsoever with gay people. Look at how he accepted that soldier!

From the link listed below...

"A classic example is provided in Matthew 8. There, a Roman soldier asked Jesus to heal his "pais." This is a Greek term often used in ancient times to refer to a servant who was his master's same-sex partner. (K.J. Cover, Greek Homosexuality (Harvard University Press, Cambridge, 1978), p. 16). When the soldier said, "Lord, my 'partner' is lying at home paralyzed, in terrible distress," Jesus was immediately compassionate and spoke no words of exclusion or condemnation. He simply said, "I will come and heal him."

In the dialogue that followed, Jesus commended this Roman solider for having more faith than anyone he had ever met and assured him that he would sit down in the Kingdom of Heaven with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. By this miracle of healing, Jesus preserved this loving same-sex relationship. (For more information about the Greek term referred to above and how it should be translated, see the book recommended below.)

The Gospels are clear. Jesus refused to be bound by cultural prejudice. Repeatedly, he took up the cause of the oppressed and defended them against narrow-minded religious leaders."

And from the second link...

"Jesus did not live in Jewish Judea but in pagan Galilee. Here he would surely have been familiar with the Roman army's tolerance for homerotic relations extending across class lines. Jesus knew this was likely a homosexual relationship and by his cure indirectly endorsed it."

Answer 2

No...why would you expect or even want there to be approval for homosexuality in the bible. You clearly know that the bible doesn't approve of homosexuality so if you could find something that contradicted what you know it says, that would make the entire book a lie...in that case, why would you care if it aproved?

I will tell you that, homosexual or not, the bible approves of you...God loves you and wants to keep you from harm. If you're struggling with homesexuality, remember that sexual activity isn't a necessity of life. We can all lead happy, productive lives without having sex! You may not be able to control what you feel, but you can control how you act on those feelings. I'm heterosexual...but I'm not married and it isn't likely that I ever will be married...it isn't a "sin" for me to be heterosexual any more than it is a sin for you (or someone else) to be homosexual. What IS a "sin" is for either of us to act on those feelings contrary to God's instructions.

Answer 3

(Maylene1852) Made Good Observations!

Her comparisons are great and have merit, BUT (emphasis on Caps) it seems she missed a couple of points in the scripture. The God of the bible never gave any consent to "consensual sexual activities within homosexual partnerships." (Please provide prove of this)

Genesis 2:24 sheds light on what type of marriage (or consensual sexual activity) god approves of. (Also Matthew 19:5-7)

If he does not omit it for heterosexual couples, then why would a loving God omit to (consensual) homosexual couples?

Also...

Time and time again history shows us that homosexuality has been around for ages. Naturally, there should have been at least a male or female jewish individual with those tendencies, yet the Mosiac law or high priest of the time never gave a blessing regarding a partnership (or Marriage).

[quote] "The Bible may be as silent on loving, committed same-sex partnerships as it is about planes, trains and automobiles." [unquote]

This arguement has nothing to do with the focus at hand. Planes, trains and automobiles (Lifeless objects) have no sexual desire, let alone SIN! (emphasis on Caps). It is a weak arguement and totally stray's from the subject.

...unless your arguement is stating that this matter equates God's approval for lifeless objects...? (Thats unscriptural as well)

This not meant to advocate hate or prejudice, but the bible shows its attitude towards this matter.

So to the question in bold, No.

Answer 4

OK... Enigma, the bible may talk about all of those things that you mentioned. But it doesn't mean that it "approves" of it. When those things are mentioned, someone simply made record of an event that happened.

To answer the original question:

26 Because people did those things, God left them and let them do the shameful things they wanted to do. Women stopped having natural sex and started having sex with other women.
27 In the same way, men stopped having natural sex and began wanting each other. Men did shameful things with other men, and in their bodies they received the punishment for those wrongs.
28 People did not think it was important to have a true knowledge of God. So God left them and allowed them to have their own worthless thinking and to do things they should not do.
29 They are filled with every kind of sin, evil, selfishness, and hatred. They are full of jealousy, murder, fighting, lying, and thinking the worst about each other. They gossip
30 and say evil things about each other. They hate God. They are rude and conceited and brag about themselves. They invent ways of doing evil. They do not obey their parents.
31 They are foolish, they do not keep their promises, and they show no kindness or mercy to others.
32 They know God's law says that those who live like this should die. But they themselves not only continue to do these evil things, they applaud others who do them. (NCV)

I think this pretty much says it all...

Answer 5

No, but there are plenty of scriptures in both the Old and the New Testament that tell you it is a sin. God himself,,hated this sin so much, he called it an abomination..that rather sets it aside from the other sins..the only other sin that God called an abomination was the sin of Pride. So, if you take pride in being a homosexual,,you are 0 for 2...

Answer 6

No, and there is no place in the bible that approves of democratic government, separation of church and state, scientific research, female emancipation, or tall buildings, either. In fact many passages bash the former, including the ten commandments (thou shall have no other gods besides me) and Genesis (The woman shall be subject to the man) or the Tower of Babel story (god confused men for building a tower that was reached into the sky - are you opposed to skyscrapers?).

Use your brain.

Thinking is more important than traditions.

Answer 7

No, actually the opposite, Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed for homosexuality, hence the term "Sodomy" and there is a verse in Corinthians which talks about how homosexuality will prevent people from entering the Kingdom of God.

Answer 8

No, it teaches the exact opposite and here are some of the verses that apply:

"Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders...." 1 Corinthians 6:9 (NIV).

" 'Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable." Leviticus 18:22 (NIV).

"If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads." Leviticus 20:13 (NIV).

"Judah did evil in the eyes of the LORD. By the sins they committed they stirred up his jealous anger more than their fathers had done. ... There were even male shrine prostitutes in the land; the people engaged in all the detestable practices of the nations the LORD had driven out before the Israelites." 1 Kings 14:22-24 (NIV).

"Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator—who is forever praised. Amen. Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion." Romans 1:24-27 (NIV).

"But we know that the Law is good, if one uses it lawfully, realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers and immoral men and homosexuals and kidnappers and liars and perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound teaching, according to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, with which I have been entrusted." 1 Timothy 1:9-11 (NASB).

"In a similar way, Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion. They serve as an example of those who suffer the punishment of eternal fire." Jude 1:7 (NIV).

"But the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars—their place will be in the fiery lake of burning sulfur. This is the second death." Revelation 21:8 (NIV).

Added note: Deirdre - here are some citations. I would be very interested to know whether you read Greek and Hebrew and have accurately translated these passages to mean something different that what every other translator has done. Also, I should have guessed that simply quoting the Word would result in thumbs down ratings. The question solicited an answer based upon the Bible, but some apparently cannot stand what the Bible says or they would like to rewrite it.

The proposition that the word rendered servant or slave in Matthew 8:8 means a homosexual partner is false - wishful thinking.

The word is pais, παῖς, and means "a boy (as often beaten with impunity), or (by analogy) a girl, and (generally) a child; specifically a slave or servant (especially a minister to a king; and by eminence to God): - child, maid (-en), (man) servant, son, young man." Strong's Dictionary No. G3816.

This word, pais, is translated as male children in Matthew 2:16, as a reference to John the Baptist in Matthew 12:18, all of Herod's servants in Matthew 14:2, a crowd of children in Matthew 21:15, a boy in Matthew 17:18, Luke 2:43 and 9:52, Acts 20:10, a girl in Luke 8:51 and 54, male slaves in Luke 12:45, a servant in Luke 15:26, a man's son in John 4:51, the nation of Israel in Luke 1:54, King David in Luke 1:69 and Acts 4:25, and as Jesus (God's servant) in Acts 3:13 and 26, Acts 4:27 and 30 (NASB). Obviously, this word, as used in the Bible, has nothing to do with homosexuals.

I must also respond to the contributor who concluded that he could ignore all of the verses that condemn homosexuality because Jesus said nothing about it. Is that the only part of the Bible that he recognizes, or did he forget that Jesus acknowledged the authority of the Old Testament, which Jesus referred to as the the "Law", Matthew 5:17-18 (did not come to abolish the Law); Luke 16:17, the "Law and the Prophets", Matthew 7:12, 11:13, 22:40, the "Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms", Luke 22:44, or "Scripture", Mark 12:10, John 7:38, John 10:35, John 17:12, not to mention all of the Old Testament verses that Jesus cited or quoted? Jesus DID approve of these Old Testament books!

In addition, God inspired the entire Bible, 2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:21, so why would anyone make a pick-and-choose argument?

Watch out for people who misrepresent the Bible. 2 Peter 2:1. That is why citations are important and should be checked.

Answer 9

Hello, Tyler;

Although the Bible enjoins us to love everyone, Sexuality out of the marriage relation is strictly taboo.

In fact, the Bible says such practices are why God destroyed the nations in the 'promised land.'

These are pretty clear words in LEVITICUS 18:22 "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it [is] abomination.
18:23 Neither shalt thou lie with any beast to defile thyself therewith: neither shall any woman stand before a beast to lie down thereto: it [is] confusion.
18:24 Defile not ye yourselves in any of these things: for IN ALL THESE NATIONS ARE DEFILED WHICH I CAST OUT BEFORE YOU:
18:25 And the land is defiled: therefore I do visit the iniquity thereof upon it, and the land itself vomiteth out her inhabitants."

Of course, there are many examples of God destroying cities like Sodom, and God destroyed the tribe of Benjamin because they would not identify their vile inhabitants.

But there is more to heavenly purity than meets the eye, God will not clear those who transgress any part of His holy law. More on this when you break the Bible code. See http://abiblecode.tripod.com

Shalom, peace in Jesus, Ben Yeshua

Answer 10

No....same gender sex is always spoken of as an "unnatural" act, and one that is condemned. However, the Bible approves of people, and I believe that includes celebate homosexuals.

Answer 11

"it does approve of stoning disobedient children, owning slaves, and sacrificing your daughter in celebration of a war victory. It also approves of incest, murder, theft and lying. If you doubt this, read it yourself."

That is simply not true. As a former atheist I can see where you are coming from. But one thing to keep in mind... .just because something is mentioned in the Bible doesn't mean God condones it. The Bible is, among other things, a historical document. And the mention of such things is just a matter of factual reporting not a promotion of such behavior.