Why do some Bible translations refer to Jesus as “God,” while others say he was “a god”?
Some translations render John 1:1 as saying: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Literally the Greek text reads: “In beginning was the word, and the word was toward the god, and god was the word.” The translator must supply capitals as needed in the language into which he translates the text. It is clearly proper to capitalize “God” in translating the phrase “the god,” since this must identify the Almighty God with whom the Word was. But the capitalizing of the word “god” in the second case does not have the same justification.
The New World Translation renders this text: “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.” True, there is no indefinite article (corresponding to “a” or “an”) in the original Greek text. But this does not mean one should not be used in translation, for Koine, or common Greek, had no indefinite article. Hence, throughout the Christian Greek Scriptures, translators are obliged to use the indefinite article or not according to their understanding of the meaning of the text. All English translations of those Scriptures do contain the indefinite article hundreds of times; yet most do not use it at John 1:1. Nevertheless, its use in the rendering of this text has sound basis.
First, it should be noted that the text itself shows that the Word was “with God,” hence could not be God, that is, be the Almighty God. (Note also vs 2, which would be unnecessary if vs 1 actually showed the Word to be God.) Additionally, the word for “god” (Gr., the·os′) in its second occurrence in the verse is significantly without the definite article “the” (Gr., ho). Regarding this fact, Ernst Haenchen, in a commentary on the Gospel of John (chapters 1-6), stated: “[the·os′] and [ho the·os′] (‘god, divine’ and ‘the God’) were not the same thing in this period. . . . In fact, for the . . . Evangelist, only the Father was ‘God’ ([ho the·os′]; cf. 17:3); ‘the Son’ was subordinate to him (cf. 14:28). But that is only hinted at in this passage because here the emphasis is on the proximity of the one to the other . . . . It was quite possible in Jewish and Christian monotheism to speak of divine beings that existed alongside and under God but were not identical with him. Phil 2:6-10 proves that. In that passage Paul depicts just such a divine being, who later became man in Jesus Christ . . . Thus, in both Philippians and John 1:1 it is not a matter of a dialectical relationship between two-in-one, but of a personal union of two entities.”—John 1, translated by R. W. Funk, 1984, pp. 109, 110.
After giving as a translation of John 1:1c “and divine (of the category divinity) was the Word,” Haenchen goes on to state: “In this instance, the verb ‘was’ ([en]) simply expresses predication. And the predicate noun must accordingly be more carefully observed: [the·os′] is not the same thing as [ho the·os′] (‘divine’ is not the same thing as ‘God’).” (pp. 110, 111) Elaborating on this point, Philip B. Harner brought out that the grammatical construction in John 1:1 involves an anarthrous predicate, that is, a predicate noun without the definite article “the,” preceding the verb, which construction is primarily qualitative in meaning and indicates that “the logos has the nature of theos.” He further stated: “In John 1:1 I think that the qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [the·os′] cannot be regarded as definite.” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Other translators, also recognizing that the Greek term has qualitative force and describes the nature of the Word, therefore render the phrase: “the Word was divine.”—AT; Sd; compare Mo; see NW appendix, p. 1579.
The Hebrew Scriptures are consistently clear in showing that there is but one Almighty God, the Creator of all things and the Most High, whose name is Jehovah. (Ge 17:1; Isa 45:18; Ps 83:18) For that reason Moses could say to the nation of Israel: “Jehovah our God is one Jehovah. And you must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul and all your vital force.” (De 6:4, 5) The Christian Greek Scriptures do not contradict this teaching that had been accepted and believed by God’s servants for thousands of years, but instead they support it. (Mr 12:29; Ro 3:29, 30; 1Co 8:6; Eph 4:4-6; 1Ti 2:5) Jesus Christ himself said, “The Father is greater than I am” and referred to the Father as his God, “the only true God.” (Joh 14:28; 17:3; 20:17; Mr 15:34; Re 1:1; 3:12) On numerous occasions Jesus expressed his inferiority and subordination to his Father. (Mt 4:9, 10; 20:23; Lu 22:41, 42; Joh 5:19; 8:42; 13:16) Even after Jesus’ ascension into heaven his apostles continued to present the same picture.—1Co 11:3; 15:20, 24-28; 1Pe 1:3; 1Jo 2:1; 4:9, 10.
These facts give solid support to a translation such as “the Word was a god” at John 1:1. The Word’s preeminent position among God’s creatures as the Firstborn, the one through whom God created all things, and as God’s Spokesman, gives real basis for his being called “a god” or mighty one. The Messianic prophecy at Isaiah 9:6 foretold that he would be called “Mighty God,” though not the Almighty God, and that he would be the “Eternal Father” of all those privileged to live as his subjects. The zeal of his own Father, “Jehovah of armies,” would accomplish this. (Isa 9:7) Certainly if God’s Adversary, Satan the Devil, is called a “god” (2Co 4:4) because of his dominance over men and demons (1Jo 5:19; Lu 11:14-18), then with far greater reason and propriety is God’s firstborn Son called “a god,” “the only-begotten god” as the most reliable manuscripts of John 1:18 call him.
When charged by opposers with ‘making himself a god,’ Jesus’ reply was: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came, and yet the Scripture cannot be nullified, do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and dispatched into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, I am God’s Son?” (Joh 10:31-37) Jesus there quoted from Psalm 82, in which human judges, whom God condemned for not executing justice, were called “gods.” (Ps 82:1, 2, 6, 7) Thus, Jesus showed the unreasonableness of charging him with blasphemy for stating that he was, not God, but God’s Son.
This charge of blasphemy arose as a result of Jesus’ having said: “I and the Father are one.” (Joh 10:30) That this did not mean that Jesus claimed to be the Father or to be God is evident from his reply, already partly considered. The oneness to which Jesus referred must be understood in harmony with the context of his statement. He was speaking of his works and his care of the “sheep” who would follow him. His works, as well as his words, demonstrated that there was unity, not disunity and disharmony, between him and his Father, a point his reply went on to emphasize. (Joh 10:25, 26, 37, 38; compare Joh 4:34; 5:30; 6:38-40; 8:16-18.) As regards his “sheep,” he and his Father were likewise at unity in their protecting such sheeplike ones and leading them to everlasting life. (Joh 10:27-29; compare Eze 34:23, 24.) Jesus’ prayer on behalf of the unity of all his disciples, including future ones, shows that the oneness, or union, between Jesus and his Father was not as to identity of person but as to purpose and action. In this way Jesus’ disciples could “all be one,” just as he and his Father are one.—Joh 17:20-23.
In harmony with this, Jesus, responding to a question by Thomas, said: “If you men had known me, you would have known my Father also; from this moment on you know him and have seen him,” and, in answer to a question from Philip, Jesus added: “He that has seen me has seen the Father also.” (Joh 14:5-9) Again, Jesus’ following explanation shows that this was so because he faithfully represented his Father, spoke the Father’s words, and did the Father’s works. (Joh 14:10, 11; compare Joh 12:28, 44-49.) It was on this same occasion, the night of his death, that Jesus said to these very disciples: “The Father is greater than I am.”—Joh 14:28.
The disciples ‘seeing’ the Father in Jesus can also be understood in the light of other Scriptural examples. Jacob, for instance, said to Esau: “I have seen your face as though seeing God’s face in that you received me with pleasure.” He said this because Esau’s reaction had been in harmony with Jacob’s prayer to God. (Ge 33:9-11; 32:9-12) After God’s interrogation of Job out of a windstorm had clarified that man’s understanding, Job said: “In hearsay I have heard about you, but now my own eye does see you.” (Job 38:1; 42:5; see also Jg 13:21, 22.) The ‘eyes of his heart’ had been enlightened. (Compare Eph 1:18.) That Jesus’ statement about seeing the Father was meant to be understood figuratively and not literally is evident from his own statement at John 6:45 as well as from the fact that John, long after Jesus’ death, wrote: “No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom position with the Father is the one that has explained him.”—Joh 1:18; 1Jo 4:12.
2007-10-25 11:43:48
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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How can God be Jewish? God existed long before Abraham was born...
Why can't Jesus be God in the flesh? If God decided to form a body in the womb of a virgin for His spirit to inhabit, why could He not do that?
If He did do that, then Jesus is exactly Who Christians believe He is...He is God-with-us, or Emmanuel.
God is the God of the entire universe, not just one small nation on one small planet in one small solar system. Either He is God of all that exists, or He is not God at all.
No...God is the God of the Jews, but He is not Jewish. The body He created for His visit to earth was created with Jewish flesh...but Jesus, Who IS God-with-us, is also not Jewish.
So, another Jew has rejected God...how very sad for you, as it was to you that the angels brought the Law, and it was your nation chosen out of all the world to bring forth the Savior of all mankind. And yet, back in the days of Samuel, Israel desired a human king "like the other nations", and God let them know that not only had they rejected Him from being their King, but their human kings would be selfish, arrogant fools...sure enough, it only took three kings before the nation of Israel was destroyed.
And yet, for some reason, they are still looking for a human king. For some reason, they are still rejecting God from being king over them.
Or, they are leaving God altogether, and turning to Atheism...
Pitiful.
2007-10-25 12:00:19
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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JESUS IS GOD. Of course Jesus is a Jew. The Gentiles, however have been grafted in. So, there is no difference between us and the Jew. (because we believed without seeing), and the Jews refused to, God said we would understand first before the Jews.
What is it to you what we believe? I believe Jesus is God because He said so. And I believe Him, not you.
You said you were a Jew, so I'm guessing you were never a follower of the Lord Jesus Christ. And, now, you choose not to believe at all. That is your choice. One day, you will find out the truth, and you will be in mourning just like the rest of the world when He comes back. You will bow to Him whether you want to or not. I choose to now.
I pray you find Him first. God Bless
2007-10-25 11:54:02
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answer #3
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answered by byHisgrace 7
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If you are a Christian, it is because you have realized that Jesus IS GOD.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was with God in the beginning.
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made......And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we saw His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:1-3,14
"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together." Colossians 1:15-17
"Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
but made himself nothing,
taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
and became obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father."
Philippians 2:5-11
2007-10-25 11:50:51
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answer #4
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answered by wefmeister 7
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Excuse me, " X warrior 1 " but you are wrong. Jesus IS the son of God. Jesus is not an ordinary person for He is the son of God! He lived an innocent life and died for us. The Father, God, had to sacrifice His only begotten son that whoever believed in Him shall not perish but have eternal life (John 3:16) AND Jesus IS God!! Jesus and God are one. Including the Holy Spirit. Christians believe in Trinity one Godhead. I. Other words, the Father, The Son, and the Holy Spirit. They are all one. This is why Jesus is known as God. And if you are knowledgeable you certainly must know that when us, Chirstian born-again(s), pray, we always begin with "Father God in Heaven, or Hallelujah Lord, or Father God in Heaven the One who created the Heavens and the earth" right? And then when we are closing the prayer we end with "In Jesus Name, Amen" right? We are mentioning both. For God is Jesus. And Jesus is God. Although, we can say for a fact that Jesus Christ indeed is the Son of God and that God is the Father of Jesus. It is said in the Word that "No one comes to the Father except through me, for I am the Way, The Truth, and The Life." (John 14:6) And in the beginning of John 16:5, it says "Everything that the Father has is Mine..." (AMP BIBLE) And here is a brief statement of my point : "JESUS IS GOD AND IS GOD s SON." And plus I have no clue of what you are pointing out about Jesus and God being jewish because first of all is Jesus really is Jewish then why would he save prostitutes, sinners, and be kind to filthy sinners such as us? In Jewish, that is most likely prohibited since others used to think that Jesus is strange because he is around prostitutes and other sorts of sinners. But even if Jesus was Jewish He did something such as that despite the pain He had to suffer. Jesus wants to save us and lead us onto the right path, that s all! And where did you guys get the idea of God being a Jewish? God wrote the WORD in other words, the BIBLE. In other words, Christianity. He is the King of all Kings. And in the first place, Born-again Christianity isn t really about religion because despite of our opinions and in who we believe in, God sent His Son Jesus to SAVE us!! Born-again Christianity is a relationship with God. And God is NOT Jewish! He is Christ. And Jesus is Christ. Jesus Christ the Son of God.
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If I have written something wrong here, I apologize and ask forgiveness from God. But really I just felt like writing all this... I hope I could help one of you...
2015-08-23 00:31:49
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answer #5
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answered by Jhonesty 1
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First off, Jesus was born a Jew. GOd, is not jewish. God, is a heavenly being that has no definate religion. He sent Jesus to earth, presented him to the people as a jew and that is how Jesus got to be a Jew. Jesus and God love all religions yet believe that the seventh day of the week (saturday) is the holy day of rest. No, i am not Jewish but i am a Seventh Day Adventist that knows the bible fairly well and plan to get a pastorial degree. Jesus has love and comapssion for everyone, the question is, is, do you have love and compassion for him
2007-10-25 11:48:59
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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We know that God cannot be Jewish, because he predates that concept. I don't believe that Jesus is God Almighty. He just happened to be Jewish because God made a promise to Abraham that blessings would come from his seed and it worked out that way.
2007-10-25 14:22:46
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answer #7
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answered by ? 4
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You may be an atheist, but that doesn't mean you're no longer Jewish. That's like saying "My parents are French, and I was born in France, but I don't believe in God, so I'm no longer French! (If you want, you can substitute any other nationality for French.)
When you stand before God (who is NOT Jewish. He exited from eternity past, and Jews only came into existence with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob), you WILL have to account to Him why you turned your back on the God of your Fathers, on the God who led you out of Egypt with the might of His right hand!
And you will also see Yeshua standing at His right hand ("They shall look upon Him whom they have pierced, and mourn ...").
THEN what will you do? Will you renounce your atheism? Sorry, but it will be too late. You had your entire life to make that choice.
You know, of course, that there will be NO atheists in hell!
2007-10-25 11:45:51
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answer #8
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answered by no1home2day 7
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Jehovah is God Almighty.
Jesus is the Son of God as the scriptures say.
When Jesus was here on earth he was Jewish.
Jehovah God is a spirit.
Spirits do not have nationalities.
2007-10-25 11:49:12
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answer #9
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answered by Jason W 4
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Jesus is God, God is Jesus. They make up two equal but different parts of the Trinity. What's your point about Jesus being Jewish?
2007-10-25 11:49:20
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answer #10
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answered by the pink baker 6
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http://www.kingdom-gospel.com/jesus.html
Acts 20:28: Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.
Did you notice it was God who had purchased with His own blood? Who was it that shed His blood? It was none other than Jesus, this scripture said it was God. So Jesus is God!!!
2007-10-25 11:59:30
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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