JW in the "Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures" John 1.1 is directly translated to

Question

In Beginning was the Word, and the Word was toward the God, and god was the Word

The NWT reads
In [The] beginning the Word was, and the workd was with god, and the Word was a god

so first the Greek has no upper or lower case and they've changed God to lower case

and second there is two translations in their own writings ..why

conundrum: that is an interesting point .. but God clearly said that you should have no other god before me.. and yet in the same chapter Timothy in John 20:28
says
28And Thomas answered and said unto him, My LORD and my God.

hmmm one god many gods.. sounds paganistic to me my friend .. oh unless of course Jesus is God ..

These are all interesting answers, yet nobody has actually answered the question..

WHY do the JW's own publications RENDER 2 TRANSLATIONS ... I do not care about your personal beliefs ... one translation must b e wrong .. which one .. my theory is the one NOT taken from the greek ..

Answer 1

Several bibles translate John 1:1 in a manner compatible with the phrase "the Word was a god". The bible plainly teaches that Jesus is a god (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18). This biblical concept does not trouble any Christian, whether he be trinitarian or nontrinitarian. Yet, for centuries, trinitarians have tended to reject any alternate translation of John 1:1.

Trinitarians must recognize that it was three or four hundred years after Christ's impalement that a minority of self-described "Christians" decided that Jesus was the only god, God Almighty (Jehovah). By the time the King James Version translated John 1:1 into English as "the Word was God", the year was 1611. How interesting it would be to see a translation from Greek (which contained no indefinite article "a") into English (with its indefinite articles "a", "an") performed by early Christians, perhaps the children or grandchildren of those who walked with the apostles!

We do have such a translation, but into the Coptic language, which uses indefinite articles as English does. How do the Coptic manuscripts word John 1:1?

"...and the Word was a God."
http://copticjohn.com/
http://jehovah.to/exe/translation/coptic.pdf
http://depts.washington.edu/cartah/text_archive/coptic/coptjohn.shtml


The bible makes perfect sense when it is being read honestly. John 1:1 is perfectly harmonious with the rest of the bible, which teaches plainly that Jesus Christ the Son is a distinct person from Jehovah God the Father. The Scriptures teach that the Almighty created Jesus as His firstborn son.

(Colossians 1:15) the firstborn of all creation

(Mark 10:18) Jesus said to him: 'Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God.

(Revelation 3:14) the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God

(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

(John 8:42) Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth

(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak

(John 14:28) I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am

(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him

(Matthew 20:23) this sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to those for whom it has been prepared by my Father

(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the Christ is God

(John 20:17) I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.

(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

Thanks again for an opportunity to share what the bible actually says about the distinct persons of Jesus Christ the Son and Jehovah God the Father!

Learn more!
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20050422/
http://watchtower.org/e/20020515/
http://watchtower.org/e/rq/index.htm?article=article_03.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/lmn/index.htm?article=article_04.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/pr/index.htm?article=article_04.htm


Incidentally, the bible quite explicitly calls Jesus a "god"; human judges, angels, and even Satan are also referred to as "gods" in the bible (see below). Yet Jehovah is "the one true God" in the sense that He has no rival among any of these. Jesus the Son is clearly no rival to God the Father!

(Psalm 86:8,10) There is none like you among the gods, O Jehovah... You are God, you alone.

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

(Exodus 22:20) One who sacrifices to any gods but Jehovah alone is to be devoted to destruction.


The bible speaks of honoring Christ Jesus and doing obeisance to him, but only Jehovah the Father merits worshipful "exclusive devotion".

(Exodus 20:2,5) I am Jehovah your God... I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive devotion

(Philippians 2:5,6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God



The bible does not use the term "god" only in reference to Almighty Jehovah.

(1 Corinthians 8:5) there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth

Jesus as "a god": (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18)
Angels as 'gods': (Psalm 82:1)
Satan as 'a god': (2 Corinthians 4:4)

Human judges as "gods": (Psalm 82:6-8) “I myself have said, ‘You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. Surely you will die just as men do... Do rise up, O God, do judge the earth

Answer 2

The Truth About the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit

PEOPLE who believe the Trinity teaching say that God consists of three persons—the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Each of these three persons is said to be equal to the others, almighty, and without beginning. According to the Trinity doctrine, therefore, the Father is God, the Son is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, yet there is only one God.

Many who believe the Trinity admit that they are not able to explain this teaching. Still, they may feel that it is taught in the Bible. It is worth noting that the word “Trinity” never occurs in the Bible. But is the idea of a Trinity found there? To answer this question, let us look at a scripture that supporters often cite to uphold the Trinity.

“THE WORD WAS GOD”

John 1:1 states: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (King James Version) Later in the same chapter, the apostle John clearly shows that “the Word” is Jesus. (John 1:14) Since the Word is called God, however, some conclude that the Son and the Father must be part of the same God.

Bear in mind that this part of the Bible was originally written in Greek. Later, translators rendered the Greek text into other languages. A number of Bible translators, though, did not use the phrase “the Word was God.” Why not? Based on their knowledge of Biblical Greek, those translators concluded that the phrase “the Word was God” should be translated differently. How? Here are a few examples: “The Logos [Word] was divine.” (A New Translation of the Bible) “The Word was a god.” (The New Testament in an Improved Version) “The Word was with God and shared his nature.” (The Translator’s New Testament) According to these translations, the Word is not God himself. Instead, because of his high position among Jehovah’s creatures, the Word is referred to as “a god.” Here the term “god” means “mighty one.”

GET MORE FACTS

Most people do not know Biblical Greek. So how can you know what the apostle John really meant? Think of this example: A schoolteacher explains a subject to his students. Afterward, the students differ on how to understand the explanation. How can the students resolve the matter? They could ask the teacher for more information. No doubt, learning additional facts would help them to understand the subject better. Similarly, to grasp the meaning of John 1:1, you can look in the Gospel of John for more information on Jesus’ position. Learning additional facts on this subject will help you to draw the right conclusion.

For instance, consider what John further writes in chapter 1, verse 18: “No man has seen [Almighty] God at any time.” However, humans have seen Jesus, the Son, for John says: “The Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld his glory.” (John 1:14, KJ) How, then, could the Son be part of Almighty God? John also states that the Word was “with God.” But how can an individual be with someone and at the same time be that person? Moreover, as recorded at John 17:3, Jesus makes a clear distinction between himself and his heavenly Father. He calls his Father “the only true God.” And toward the end of his Gospel, John sums up matters by saying: “These have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.” (John 20:31) Notice that Jesus is called, not God, but the Son of God. This additional information provided in the Gospel of John shows how John 1:1 should be understood. Jesus, the Word, is “a god” in the sense that he has a high position but is not the same as Almighty God.

CONFIRM THE FACTS

Think again about the example of the schoolteacher and the students. Imagine that some still have doubts, even after listening to the teacher’s additional explanation. What could they do? They could turn to another teacher for further information on the same subject. If the second teacher confirms the explanation of the first one, the doubts of most students may be put to rest. Similarly, if you are not sure what the Bible writer John was really saying about the relationship between Jesus and Almighty God, you could turn to another Bible writer for further information. Consider what was written by Matthew, for example. Regarding the end of this system of things, he quotes Jesus as saying: “Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father.” (Matthew 24:36) How do these words confirm that Jesus is not Almighty God?

Jesus says that the Father knows more than the Son does. If Jesus were part of Almighty God, however, he would know the same facts as his Father. So, then, the Son and the Father cannot be equal. Yet, some will say: ‘Jesus had two natures. Here he speaks as a man.’ But even if that were so, what about the holy spirit? If it is part of the same God as the Father, why does Jesus not say that it knows what the Father knows?

As you continue your Bible studies, you will become familiar with many more Bible passages that have a bearing on this subject. They confirm the truth about the Father, the Son, and the holy spirit.—Psalm 90:2; Acts 7:55; Colossians 1:15.

Answer 3

The Greek Interlinear is just that, a word for word translation of the Greek.

The Greek language does not contain the indefinite article "a" or "an"

This means every place in English you see the word "a" as
in "a prophet"

It has been added to make the sentence proper English.

Which is the proper english sentence?

Snoopy was dog?

or

Snoopy was a dog?

The first example is Proper Greek, but not Proper English.

Most "English" bibles use proper Greek but improper English in translating John 1:1.

When John 1:1 was translated into an Egyptian Language that contained the indefinite article 'a', that is how it was translated,

This translation was written only 100 years after John wrote the original.

http://copticjohn.bravehost.com/index.html

Check it out for yourself.

.

Answer 4

Jesus The Lord, The Christ, The Son of God,The Messiah said to Mary “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.’” ( John 20:17) Those Words came out of His Mouth. Therefore weigh those Words againt the Words of John and ask yourself if your thinking is in line with what Jesus Uttered above.
Take first that popular rendering by the Authorized Version or Douay Version: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God.” Here a few lines deserve to be quoted from the book The Four Gospels Harmonized and Translated, by Count Leo Tolstoy, as follows:
If it says that in the beginning was the comprehension, or word, and that the word was to God, or with God, or for God, it is impossible to go on and say that it was God. If it was God, it could stand in no relation to God.
Certainly the apostle John was not so unreasonable as to say that someone (“the Word”) was with some other individual (“God”) and at the same time was that other individual (“God”).

Answer 5

I'd say the correct one is neither. The current NWT translation has probably been bastardized as well. The only way to know the correct translations would be to find an ancient copy of a Bible (not King James) and have it translated.

Answer 6

What are you talking about?

Of course theres no uppercase or lowercase in Greek, but it requires one in English.

Greek John 1:1
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς [τὸν θεόν], [καὶ] [θεὸς] ἦν ὁ λόγος.

τὸν θεόν = The God (translated just "God" in English)
καὶ = Was
θεὸς = God

Why shouldn't it be translated "Word was God"?

The singular anarthrous predicate noun "God" (θεὸς) is preceding the verb, and thus becomes a quality, which is a divine being or a god.

Look at these verses because the constructed exactly the same as John 1:1, yet uses a predicate noun.

John 9:17
The man replied, "He is a prophet."

John 6:70
Yet one of you is a devil!"

If they used correct Greek Grammar in this verse, why do they ignore it in John 1:1. They seem pretty bias to me.

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John 20:28

Knowing Jesus was going by his prophetic title, Thomas was not referring to him as a God, but more like his God.

As we look in the book of Exodus, Moses was to serve as a God to the Pharaoh's

Exodus 7:1
1 Then the LORD said to Moses, "See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron will be your prophet.

Did Thomas really think Jesus was God? Not at all because Thomas heard Jesus prayer when he stated that his FATHER was the ONLY TRUE GOD.


Do you ignore the scripture where Jesus calls his Father the only true God?

Also, "god" (lowercase) is a quality and it is not the samething as "God"

Answer 7

RS reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God.” (KJ, Dy, JB, NAB use similar wording.) However, NW reads: “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This one was in the beginning with God.”

Which translation of John 1:1, 2 agrees with the context? John 1:18 says: “No one has ever seen God.” Verse 14 clearly says that “the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory.” Also, verses 1, 2 say that in the beginning he was “with God.” Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person? At John 17:3, Jesus addresses the Father as “the only true God”; so, Jesus as “a god” merely reflects his Father’s divine qualities.—Heb. 1:3.

Is the rendering “a god” consistent with the rules of Greek grammar? Some reference books argue strongly that the Greek text must be translated, “The Word was God.” But not all agree. In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1,” Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the‧os′ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, “The Word was God,” do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, JB and KJ both refer to Judas Iscariot as “a devil,” and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus as “a prophet.”

John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317.

In harmony with the above, AT reads: “the Word was divine”; Mo, “the Logos was divine”; NTIV, “the word was a god.” In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: “God of a sort the Word was.” Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as “a god” is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at Psalm 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as “gods” (Hebrew, ’elo‧him′; Greek, the‧oi′, at John 10:34) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law.

Does Thomas’ exclamation at John 20:28 prove that Jesus is truly God?

John 20:28 (RS) reads: “Thomas answered him, ‘My Lord and my God!’”

There is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus’ own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as “gods.” (John 10:34, 35, RS; Ps. 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (NW) Jesus is referred to as “the only-begotten god.” (See also Ro, By.) Isaiah 9:6 (RS) also prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus’ being described as “a god,” or “divine,” at John 1:1 (NW, AT).

The context helps us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the only true God.” (John 17:3, RS) After Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: “I am ascending . . . to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, RS) After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31, RS) So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas’ exclamation that Jesus is himself “the only true God” or that Jesus is a Trinitarian “God the Son,” he needs to look again at what Jesus himself said (vs. 17) and at the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (vs. 31).

Answer 8

If religion requires arguing over semantic and meaning because of multiple translations, How can it be relied apon for salvation?

Especially for those who have to actually work hard for a living, and don't have the luxury of education or learned understanding.

Discussions like this are one of the biggest points against the reality of religious belief.

Answer 9

If you can name the text onto which this was taken, I can name the reason why it was messed up.

If I am not mistaken, this was used to demean Jesus to something else than 100% God and 100% man.

Don't read the NWT. Please.

Answer 10

Good Morning Brother...They have to do that or else their theology falls appart, and the Witnesses will follow God and not a corporation

Answer 11

Hi. You do not get quick fixes here on this forum questioner. You have to put some work into what truthful information you want to know and do your own studying. You get no freebees here. If it is the truth you want then your heart will reveal this to God, and your outward conduct will reveal it to others, but if you just want to blaphemine and ridicule you will stay blinded. I will help you along the way a bit, but it's best for you to call up a kingdom hall in your area and ask for a private Bible study with an elder or brothers there. Write your questions down before they arrive and be ready for truth. God knows if you're just fooling or not. Here you go...


1 Corinthians 8: 5 - 6
----------------------
For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.

2 Corinthians 4: 3 - 4
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If, now, the good news we declare is in fact veiled, it is veiled among those who are perishing, among whom the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through. (Satan is a god, but not All Mighty God. Jesus is a god, but not the Devine All Mighty God)

Is Jesus Christ God?
--------------------------
DURING the reign of the Roman emperor Augustus Caesar, a child named Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judea. He grew to maturity and was finally executed during the rule of Tiberius Caesar, the successor of Augustus.

Today Jesus Christ is better known than even the Roman Caesars who ruled during his lifetime. In fact, churches commonly teach that he is God. But is this true? Is Jesus really Almighty God?

It is vital that we know. For if Jesus is not God, and yet one worships him as if he were, think what that means. One would be worshiping someone other than Almighty God. Surely that would be displeasing to the Creator. You should examine carefully what personal acquaintances of Jesus said regarding his identity.

Showing that Jesus was clearly no ordinary person, an angel announced in advance his conception and birth, saying: “This one will be great and will be called Son of the Most High.” Notice that the angel said, not “God,” but “Son of the Most High.” (Luke 1:30-32)

At thirty years of age Jesus presented himself to be baptized. On that occasion God’s own voice said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.” And so John the Baptist, who witnessed the event, said of Jesus: “This one is the Son of God.” (Matthew 3:17; John 1:34)

Jesus’ apostles and friends repeatedly identified him in this way. Said Nathanael: “Rabbi, you are the Son of God.” (John 1:49) Peter exclaimed: “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” (Matthew 16:16) Martha confessed: “You are the Christ, the Son of God.” (John 11:27) The apostle John wrote so people might believe that “Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.” (John 20:31) And of the apostle Paul’s ministry it is said: “He began to preach Jesus, that this One is the Son of God.” (Acts 9:20)

Did Peter, Paul, John or any other of Jesus’ followers preach that he was God? No, from these scriptures it is clear that they taught he was God’s Son.

Why Many Believe that Jesus Is God
---------------------------
Why, then, do many religious people today believe that Jesus is God? It is due principally to the teaching of church leaders who, in the language of the fourth-century Nicene Creed, identified Jesus as ‘very God of very God, begotten not made, of one substance with the Father.’

Yet some persons may object that this is not so. Their belief, they claim, is based on the testimony of Jesus’ own apostles.

This matter deserves our close attention, for apostles did refer to Jesus as “God.” But did they believe him to be the Almighty God? And did Jesus describe himself as “God”? See below.

Jesus Called “God”
-------------------------
Thomas may have addressed Jesus as “God” in the qualified sense of his being “a god,” but not Almighty God. The Scriptures speak of spirit persons or angels as gods. For example, 2 Corinthians 4:4 says, “The god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers.” Here the wicked angel Satan the Devil is called “god.”
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You do not get quick fixes here on this forum questioner. You have to put some work into what truthful information you want to know and do your own studying. You get no freebees here. If it is the truth you want then your heart will reveal this to God, and your outward conduct will reveal it to others, but if you just want to blaphemine and ridicule you will stay blinded.