Why is it that article 1 section 9 says "No capitation, or other direct, Tax shall be laid, unless in Proportion to the Census or Enumeration herein before directed to be taken." which hasnt been repealed or amended but the 16th amendment says "The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration."? wassup with that huge contradiction??
2007-10-25
01:06:54
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7 answers
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asked by
theoutcast32
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law Enforcement & Police