you'd think they would have written a bit more generally rather than addressing the specific problems of specific people in specific churches at specific times and the particular context in which they operated wouldn't you???
When you are writing a letter to someone, you know them, and you know what to say to them. so why do we treat the letters of Paul any differently? he had some important messages for those people in his time. Somehow by the Holy Spirit aren't we supposed to determine the message that Paul was writing to his audience and then extract the spiritual principle from the message and then apply that message to our context? rather than taking one sentence fragment and prooftexting a whole doctrine on it?
2007-10-24
21:05:18
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6 answers
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asked by
Gruntled Employee
6
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
achtung, read the question again, i'm not sure what you are getting at.
2007-10-25
11:05:22 ·
update #1
No, I don't think they would've... Aside from the obvious they didn't; in the letters themselves, they made it clear that the persons to whom they were writing were generally incapable of applying universal principles to their specific concerns, in wise, and advisable ways. St. Paul likened them to: infants in need of mothers milk, and St. Peter, implied, via his vision: as [human] animals, who could now be called children of the kingdom of God.
That is why they had to be advised for the most part, rather than just praised... Their circumstances were not completely at variance with todays, but people do have the same inabilities, not having them as direct guides to help them overcome; their confusion when this direct converse is not happening is evident.
There are those who are rightly guided, and wrongly, and this is necessary, "the poor [in spirit] will always be with you", and are in fact often interchangeable when the circumstance changes, "I will make the high low, and the low high", and "The first shall be last, and the last shall be first" - That is: only those who put others in heaven first, are first in heaven... Thus it is said "Do not Judge, lest thou be judged.", and "... but if I judge, I judge by the Holy Spirit."
God bless.
2007-10-24 21:27:46
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answer #1
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answered by Gravitar or not... 5
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The Old Testament is in Hebrew. The New Testament is in Greek, with some Hebrew and Aramaic words and phrases. Jesus spoke Aramaic, but his words were written down in Greek because Greek was the language of scholars at the time. Later the whole Bible was translated into Latin when Christianity became the state religion of the Roman Empire. The KJV in English doesn't come along until the 1500s, or thereabouts.
2016-05-25 18:30:37
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The questioner seems to forget that of all the letters written by the apostles and older men of the first century Christian congregation, only a handful were considered inspired and worthy of inclusion in the bible canon.
Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/20001201/article_02.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/19991115/article_02.htm
2007-10-25 10:44:49
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answer #3
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answered by achtung_heiss 7
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They were no writing to a single person,but to towns and Church's.
2007-10-24 21:22:23
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answer #4
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answered by gwhiz1052 7
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Duh.
You get a star.
2007-10-24 21:11:16
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answer #5
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answered by SDW 6
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*******their way,,,your way??????????????
2007-10-24 21:15:30
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answer #6
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answered by hamoh10 5
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