Where is the infallibility of the pope found in Scripture?

Question

CC said"Christ instructed the Church to preach everything he taught (Matt. 28:19–20) and promised the protection of the Holy Spirit to "guide you into all the truth" (John 16:13). That mandate and that promise guarantee the Church will never fall away from his teachings (Matt. 16:18, 1 Tim. 3:15), even if individual Catholics might."
WHAT IF that individual Catholic is the POPE??

evolver-Not to be insulting, but you scae me! Until Christ comes for his church, I will not place the church in a more important position that the Bible nor would I ever say that traditions created by man are important (that is legalism!).

Infallibility in my book is defined as when the Pope speaks then he can say nothing wrong. I understand that he is human and has sin, but how can you say that what he says is infalliable?

Answer 1

First, I strongly suggest you - and my friend Hope - read this link:
http://www.catholic.com/library/Papal_Infallibility.asp

Vatican II explained the doctrine of infallibility as follows: "Although the individual bishops do not enjoy the prerogative of infallibility, they can nevertheless proclaim Christ’s doctrine infallibly. This is so, even when they are dispersed around the world, provided that while maintaining the bond of unity among themselves and with Peter’s successor, and while teaching authentically on a matter of faith or morals, they concur in a single viewpoint as the one which must be held conclusively. This authority is even more clearly verified when, gathered together in an ecumenical council, they are teachers and judges of faith and morals for the universal Church. Their definitions must then be adhered to with the submission of faith" (Lumen Gentium 25).

Infallibility belongs in a special way to the pope as head of the bishops (Matt. 16:17–19; John 21:15–17). As Vatican II remarked, it is a charism the pope "enjoys in virtue of his office, when, as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith (Luke 22:32), he proclaims by a definitive act some doctrine of faith or morals. Therefore his definitions, of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, are justly held irreformable, for they are pronounced with the assistance of the Holy Spirit, an assistance promised to him in blessed Peter."

The infallibility of the pope is not a doctrine that suddenly appeared in Church teaching; rather, it is a doctrine which was implicit in the early Church. It is only our understanding of infallibility which has developed and been more clearly understood over time. In fact, the doctrine of infallibility is implicit in these Petrine texts: John 21:15–17 ("Feed my sheep . . . "), Luke 22:32 ("I have prayed for you that your faith may not fail"), and Matthew 16:18 ("You are Peter . . . ").

Christ instructed the Church to preach everything he taught (Matt. 28:19–20) and promised the protection of the Holy Spirit to "guide you into all the truth" (John 16:13). That mandate and that promise guarantee the Church will never fall away from his teachings (Matt. 16:18, 1 Tim. 3:15), even if individual Catholics might.

As Christians began to more clearly understand the teaching authority of the Church and of the primacy of the pope, they developed a clearer understanding of the pope’s infallibility. This development of the faithful’s understanding has its clear beginnings in the early Church. For example, Cyprian of Carthage, writing about 256, put the question this way, "Would the heretics dare to come to the very seat of Peter whence apostolic faith is derived and whither no errors can come?" (Letters 59 [55], 14). In the fifth century, Augustine succinctly captured the ancient attitude when he remarked, "Rome has spoken; the case is concluded" (Sermons 131, 10).

Answer 2

The Bible speaks of only one abiding, "tangible," infallible guide left by God for His church. It is the written word of God, not an infallible leader (2 Timothy 3:15-17). And as He gave the Holy Spirit to bear holy men along in the writing of those Scriptures (2 Peter 1:19-21), so He has given His Holy Spirit to indwell, fill, guide, and gift members of His church today for the purpose of directing His church through the proper interpretation of that written word (1 Corinthians 12; 14; Ephesians 4:11-16).

Answer 3

The Catholic Church teaches that the Pope is infallible at closely defined times.

The Pope is only infallible when he, in union with the body of bishops, solemnly teaches that a doctrine as true. This is called "ex cathedra", literally meaning in Latin "from the chair".

This comes from the words of Jesus to Peter (the first Pope) and the Apostles (the first bishops), "Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven" (Matthew 18:18) and "He who hears you hears me" (Luke 10:16).

At all other times the Pope can be just as wrong or sinful as you and me and be in need of forgiveness.

For more information, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church, section 891: http://www.usccb.org/catechism/text/pt1sect2chpt3art9p4.htm#891

With love in Christ.

Answer 4

For over 600 years there was no mention (& certianly not Scriptural) of ANY HUMAN PAPA being "Infallible" until the appearance of the "False Decretals" in 1870 during the "Infighting" between Innocent III and the Greek Church. Funny, the Councils of Pisa, Constance abd Basel Expressly Decreed that Papas' were Subjects of the Councils!!! Pius IX (1854) of & on his Own Whim just Declared the Doctrine of the "Immaculate Conception" as a sort of "Feeler" as to whether or not he had such power & it "Flew"!!! So, in 1870, he called a special Council just to have a Decree proclaiming that Papas speak "Ex Cathedra" & are "possessed of Infallibility in defining Doctrines of Faith & Morals, and that all such Definitions are "Irreformable". Interesting cause the latest greatest Papa just "Reformed" some Long Held Doctrines!!! John

Answer 5

It's not there. It was simply something they declared, and it became true, for them. Kinda like they say they can trace the papacy back to Peter, which, historically, is not true.

..."that no bishop of Rome considered himself to have any greater authority than the many other bishops, nor sought monarchial authority over all Christendom, until the 3rd century was well underway. Then, Calixtus I, whose most celebrated accomplishment recorded in Britannica is the transfer of the Roman Christians’ cemetery from the Via Salaria to the Via Appia, attempted to hijack our Lord’s legacy by citing Matthew 16:18 as the establishment of Peter and all succeeding bishops of Rome to be rulers over all the churches. Putting a wagon in a garage does not make it an automobile; and declaring oneself to be the boss doesn’t produce a boss. The great Tertullian, bishop of Carthage, ridiculed Calixtus and his claim, referring to him as a “usurper.” In its Catechisms the Vatican quotes Tertullian whenever it is expedient, but you won’t find his appellation for Calixtus I in any RCC printed matter."

For more info on the real history of the papacy, check out this link:
http://www.contenderministries.org/Catholicism/papalfallacy1.php

Answer 6

The germination of the idea can be found in...

"Amen, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven." (Matthew 18:18)

Here he is addressing the apostles. And we all know that in 16:18, he has appointed Peter to the leadership of the apostles, something he confirms in John 21:15-17.

But more importantly than all this - where do you think the New Testament and the canon of the bible comes from? It came from the church. Now if the church is older than the bible (which is an irrefutable fact), should not the church have precedent over the bible?

The church is the body of Christ, and the bible is not. And as important as the bible is, it is only one of two facets of the church (the other being her traditions.)

Answer 7

It isn't.
The Bible clearly states all have sinned.
Peter founded the church which will never die.
Peter himself was not infallible he denied Christ.
And the pope only came into being long after the church came into being.

Answer 8

No where. In fact, I believe scripture actually states the opposite-- in so many words. For instance, Matthew 23:9 (NKJ) says "Do not call anyone on earth your father; for One is your Father, He who is in heaven." The New Living Translation which is more contemporary in language puts it this way: "And don't address anyone here on earth as 'Father', for only God in heaven is your spiritual Father."

The great thing is that we don't even need an earthly mediator anymore to approach God. We can go directly to our heavenly Father through Christ Jesus (The Great High Priest) Hebrews 4:14-16 say's "So then, since we have a great High Priest who has entered heaven, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to what we believe. 15. This High Priest of ours understands our weaknesses, for He faced all of the same testings we do, yet He did not sin. 16. So let us come boldly to the throne of our gracious God. There we will receive His mercy, and we will find grace to help us when we need it most."

Answer 9

It's nowhere in the scripture. The idea is that Jesus made Peter (who became the bishop of Rome) the leader of the church. Apostolic succession took it from there and it became this big thing called the papacy.

Answer 10

It is written on the dustjacket in a special invisible ink which is only visible to those who believe the pope is infalliable