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In Mathew 1:23 who is Mathew referring to here that has been given the name which means "With Us Is God"?

2007-10-24 07:39:26 · 8 answers · asked by Blueryno 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

The JW Bible, the New World Translation, renders this as '.. will give birth to a son, and they will call his name Immanuel, which means, when translated, 'With Us Is God'.' The reference takes the reader to Isaiah 8:10, which is NOT the usual cross-reference, but a verse that says, 'Speak any word, and it will not stand, for God is with us!' Now, in the NWT, Isa 8:10 is referring to Jehovah but the usual reference, Isa 7:14, is where the virgin/maiden gives birth to the Saviour son who is to be called Immanuel - With Us Is God.

Ironically, the JW cross reference shows the same meaning is applied to Jehovah God. This speaks of the way Jehovah and Jesus are intertwined in scripture. All bona fide Christians know the title Immanuel is an expression of the fact that Christ is God (something the JWs deny in the Trinitarian sense). All this seems lost on JWs who explain it away as meaning something lesser.

A good question, wasted on JWs unfortunately. The day has yet to dawn when any such good questions prompt a JW to answer, 'Wow! I didn't see that before! Thank you for pointing this out!'

2007-10-24 07:56:52 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 9

Matthew is referring to Jesus. And should we suppose that that means that Jesus was God? Again, how then do we account for the fact that the Bible says very simply that no man has ever seen God?

King James says: "No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him."

The expression "with us is God" should not mystify us. It is actually a very common thing to wish God's blessing upon others by saying something like 'May God be with you.'

In Spanish, the word for goodbye, "adios," literally means 'go with God.' No one in their right mind, though, confuses the person for God himself. Jehovah could be said to be with the Jews in the person of Jesus because everything Jesus did was representative of his Father. In fact Hebrews 1:3 says that Jesus was the "exact representation" of the Father.

A representation is not the same as the original, but an exact representation is as good as the real thing. That is why Jesus said that "if you have seen me you have seen the Father," because he was just like Jehovah in every respect—'a chip off the old block'—as the expression goes.

2007-10-24 08:04:34 · answer #2 · answered by keiichi 6 · 4 1

Another fairly common trinitarian so-called "proof" that "Jesus is God" uses the MEANINGS of personal names.

But why not consider all of the other meanings of names in the Bible that are similar? Does this mean that all of these people God as well?

It is certain that many (if not most) of the personal names of God’s people had meanings which were meant to honor Jehovah, not to glorify the person who bore that name.

It is very interesting that Joshua was originally named ‘Hoshea’ ("Salvation" - p. 303, Today’s Dictionary of the Bible, Bethany House Publ.), but Moses began to call him ‘Joshua’ (Yehoshua: ‘Jehovah is Salvation’ or ‘Jehovah the Savior’ - p. 358; "[Jehovah] Saves" - Young’s Concordance; "Jehovah Saved" - Strong’s Concordance) at a certain point. - Numbers 13:8, 16. Obviously Moses meant IN NO WAY TO IMPLY THAT HOSHEA HAD BECOME JEHOVAH. The addition of "Jehovah" to Hoshea’s name merely indicated Moses’ understanding of Hoshea’s loyalty to Jehovah (and that any salvation that might occur through the man Joshua most certainly came originally from Jehovah!)

Not only that, but hundreds of others with names similar to "Elijah" ("God Jehovah"), "Abijah" ("Father Jehovah"), "Eliathah" ("God is Come" - Young’s), "Jehu" ("Jehovah is He" - Today’s Dictionary of the Bible; Strong’s Concordance; Young’s Concordance; and Gesenius), etc. ARE ALSO OBVIOUSLY NOT JEHOVAH GOD HIMSELF.

2007-10-24 07:56:06 · answer #3 · answered by tik_of_totg 3 · 8 0

Im·man′u·el) [With Us Is God].
This identity of Jesus Christ as Immanuel did not mean he was the incarnation of God, ‘God in the flesh,’ which proponents of the Trinity teaching claim is implied by the meaning of Immanuel, namely, “With Us Is God.” It was a common practice among Jews to embody the word “God,” even “Jehovah,” in Hebrew names. Even today Immanuel is the proper name of many men; none of whom are incarnations of God.
David's 4th son was named Ad·o·ni′jah meaning [Jehovah Is Lord]. .... are we to Assume that Adonijah is Lord?
Most of all The Creator of the Universe was NEVER an Infant..

2007-10-24 08:08:46 · answer #4 · answered by conundrum 7 · 5 1

Immanuel when translated means "God is with us". Does this mean that any person who is called Immanuel is God himself? The name Elihu means "God is he", does it mean that Elihu is God himself? God's people and his representatives have God's name in them, it doesn't mean that the reprentatives are part of God himself. Isaiah means "Salvation is Jehovah". Matt 16:16 states that Jesus is "the Christ, the SON of the living God". Jesus admitted in John 5:26 that his source of life is his Father. Col 1:15 states that of all the creation of God, Jesus is the firstborn among them. I hope this help.

The Bible agrees that God is only one person not three. In the doctrine of the Trinity it states that Jesus is Jehovah, the Father is Jehovah, and the holy spirit is Jehovah, so basically there are three Jehovahs.
Deut 6:4 states that ““Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah”. Notice in Deut 6:4 it used “IS” and only ONE person is involved. If there are three Jehovah then it should have used ARE for THREE persons.

Who is Jehovah? Isa 63:16 states “you, O Jehovah, are our Father”. So Jehovah is "Our Father" notice in Isa 63:16 it doesn't state that Jehovah is the Son. Jesus taught in the Lord's prayer "Our Father in heaven" let your name be sanctified. The doctrine of Trinity doesn't sanctify God's name because it conflicts with the Bible.

Gen 17:1 states “, then Jehovah appeared to A´bram and said to him: “I am God Almighty”

Now, please use your understanding,

Do you use the phrase “I am” for THREE persons or you only use it for ONE Person?
If God is composed of THREE persons, God should have said “WE ARE God” but you cannot find that it the Bible, don’t you?

You never use the phrase “I am” for THREE Persons. I am is only used for one person.

Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten(Gennao) thee. Acts 13:33

The word begotten in Greek is gennao. It means “to be born” –Strong’s dictionary defines this as procreate (properly of the father, but by extension of the mother); figuratively to regenerate: - bear, beget, be BORN, BRING FORTH, conceive, be delivered of, gender, MAKE, spring.

At Acts 13:33, it states the Father “has MADE/BRING FORTH” the Son. This verse talks about the relationship of God to his Son whom he MADE/BROUGHT FORTH (Gennoa).

2007-10-24 11:30:33 · answer #5 · answered by trustdell1 3 · 0 0

Jehovah's Witnesses certainly do believe the bible to teach that the name "Immanuel" prophetically pointed forward to Jesus. According to Matthew 1:23, however, who is it that calls the child by this name?

(Matthew 1:23) Look! The virgin will become pregnant and will give birth to a son, and THEY [humans who are familiar with the Isaiah 8:8 prophecy] will call his name Immanuel


There is no evidence that Jehovah God ever intended for that name to serve as the personal name of his Son. In fact, did Jehovah God ever express an opinion about what his Son should be called?

(Luke 1:26-31) the angel Gabriel was sent forth from God... So the angel said to her: “Have no fear, Mary...you will conceive in your womb and give birth to a son, and you are to call his name Jesus.

(Matthew 1:20-22) Jehovah’s angel appeared to him in a dream, saying: “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary your wife home, for that which has been begotten in her is by holy spirit. She will give birth to a son, and you must call his name Jesus...”


When Jehovah's Witnesses refer to their Lord and Head as "Jesus", they are working to obey the command of God as expressed through his angel and as recorded in the Gospels.


In a similar way, Jehovah's Witnesses believe the bible to teach that the personal name of God the Father is also significant to true worshippers.

(John 17:26) [Jesus said] I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them

(Exodus 3:13-15) Moses said to the true God: “Suppose I am now come to the sons of Israel...and they do say to me, ‘What is his name?’ What shall I say to them?” ...“This is what you are to say to the sons of Israel, ‘Jehovah the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name to time indefinite, and this is the memorial of me to generation after generation

(Psalm 8:1) O Jehovah our Lord, how majestic your name is in all the earth

(Deuteronomy 32:3) For I shall declare the name of Jehovah

(Matthew 6:9) [Jesus said] “You must pray, then, this way: “‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_05.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/na/index.htm?article=diagram_04.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20040122/
http://watchtower.org/e/19990208/article_03.htm


Postscript: Perhaps the questioner intends to imply that the name "Immanuel" proves Jesus to be God. Yet, the account at Isaiah chapter 8 shows that the name "Immanuel" was likewise applied to a child centuries before the birth of Jesus. Do trinitarians pretend that child was also God?

2007-10-24 08:45:23 · answer #6 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 5 1

i believe they were talking about Jesus, so what is your point?

2007-10-24 07:46:42 · answer #7 · answered by calipeaches98 2 · 2 0

GOOD ONE!

2007-10-24 07:43:46 · answer #8 · answered by Gypsy Priest 4 · 1 5

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