To become a state of the United States of America, the people of the state have to vote overwhelmingly in favor of doing so. a simple majority is not enough.
California, New Mexico, Arizona, Texas, etc. All voted in favor of joining the United States as a State instead of as a territory.
This is after we PURCHASED this land, fair and square.
So tell me, how is the SW USA part of Mexico?
2007-10-24
03:07:00
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14 answers
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asked by
Darkwolf
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in
Politics & Government
➔ Immigration
Jneg7, how? offer some thoughs on that bit, please.
2007-10-24
03:48:12 ·
update #1
paige, I'm not saying "it's right because it's us" I'm saying it's right because the wwar was won and the agreed upon price was paid.
in capitolism, if you give someone the agreed upon price for something, land, goods, et. al., it is now yours and yours alone until you sell it.
2007-10-24
03:50:25 ·
update #2
Mark - Thank you for the bit on CA, I wasn't sure wether it was part of the Gasden purchase or not.
However, the treaty wasn't all one sided. I'm sure we paid something for it.
2007-10-24
03:51:45 ·
update #3
Commonsense - "Yes, the US techically owns the land" right there you should have stopped.
Ownership is the issue here. not semantics. semantics is the argument of definitions.
Ownership is both defined and proven for these areas, and is NOT semantics.
Manhattan has nothing to do with this issue here, and I refuse to comment on the matter. If you want to know my feelings, ask a question and let me know you asked it.
2007-10-24
03:55:33 ·
update #4
Daisy - Thanks for that tidbit.
Once again, I thank the forces of Entropy that I didn't grow up in California.
2007-10-24
05:23:14 ·
update #5
These are the same people that think we should give the U.S. back to the Indians, and reparations to the blacks for something that happened long ago. Ignore them.
2007-10-24 03:45:10
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The Texas issue was settled originally after a war between Mexico and Texas with the treaty of Velasco 1836, making Texas an independent country. The Republic of Texas was continually attacked by Mexico anyway and opted for statehood, by a majority vote, in 1845. After Santa Anna's continued harassment on the border issue the Mexican-American war started in 1846. In 1848 after Mexico LOST the war they were offered 15 mil. for the S.W. and settled for it with the treaty of Guadelupe Hidalgo.
Later the Mexican government also offered to sell Baha California for 5 mil., the USA was not interested in it and refused.
End of history lesson.
2007-10-24 07:16:27
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answer #2
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answered by Commandant Marcos 4
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We did not purchase California. It was a treaty settlement after the Mexican-American war.
California was a Territory until 1821 when Mexico gained independence from Spain. It was part of Mexico until 1848 when the treaty was signed.
California would belong more to the hundreds of Native American nations than it would belong to Mexico.
2007-10-24 03:18:08
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answer #3
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answered by mark 7
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You must not have ever been to those states. Yes, the US techically owns the land, but in California, 40% of the names (surnames) are of hispanic origin. Same for Texas ( it might be a higher percentage ). So really it is a matter of semantics. You can live your whole life in these four states and be tremendously successful - without knowing one word of English. As for purchasing the land fair and square, that depends on how you define "fair and square". I suppose you think Manhattan and other parts of New York were purchased "fair and square" from the Native Americans . . ?
2007-10-24 03:18:36
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answer #4
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answered by commonsense 5
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Because there are teachers in the California Public School system who teach the "The US took Texas / Cal et al FROM US when they won the war."
yes, that's a direct quote. Perhaps we should be monitoring the revisionist history lessons in our public high school.
Of course, the snarky answer is "because they think that if they squat there long enough it will be theirs."
2007-10-24 05:14:30
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answer #5
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answered by DaisyCake 5
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Purchased?
By waging a war that was only possible because the bulk of the government and population, who were overwhelmingly against a war, was unaware of the war due to poor communications of the time and was nothing but an invasion fueled by a few greedy people's inflated desires?
I don't want to give it back, lol, but we've got to get over this "its right because it's us" thought process, worldwide.
2007-10-24 03:43:24
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answer #6
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answered by paigespirate 4
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I believe the Louisiana and Gadsen Purchases gave us that land, we did buy it from Mexico and France.
In Texas we just bloodied their noses and took it
If they want anything give them Puerto Rico.
2007-10-24 03:11:50
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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You might want to check the mexican textbooks.
2007-10-24 04:54:36
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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it's not. let them say what they want. just remember they are all missing the whole happy meal. there nuts and is grasping at straws that are not there.
2007-10-24 03:16:15
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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They believe that because they are ignorant and believe it excuses their bad behavior.
2007-10-24 03:11:22
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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