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2007-10-23 09:23:59 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

or does he exist independently from us. ooops sorry

2007-10-23 09:27:10 · update #1

12 answers

The "collective unconscious" is the part of the collective psyche that is unconscious, the other parts being consciousness of the perceptible world and consciousness itself. The collective unconscious is different from and in addition to the personal unconscious in that it is a stratum of reality that "does not derive from personal experience and is not a personal acquisition but is inborn...universal...[and] more or less the same everywhere and in all individuals." (Jung, 1934 [1948]).

The term collective unconscious was first introduced by Carl Gustav Jung in 1916 in a talk to the Zurich School for Analytical Psychology entitled "Uber das Unbewesste und seine Inhalte." The German manuscript for this talk was not found until 1961, after Jung's death. The earliest written appearance of the term was found in the French translation of the Zurich talk published in 1916 in the Archives de Psychologies (Jung, 1916).

Jung's notion of the collective unconscious ranges from a passive repository that records the history of all human reactions to the world to an active substratum that is the ground out of which all reality emerges. The components of the collective unconscious were first said by Jung to be primordial or ancestral images and later archetypes that manifest in consciousness through images, strong affects, and behavioral patterns. When the energies of the collective unconscious break through into consciousness, consciousness itself is altered, and reactions vary from insanity to a significant reordering of major attitudes.

The notion of the collective unconscious first came to Jung from a dream he had in 1909 on board a ship returning from the United States with Freud. The dream depicted a house that had a cellar below the normal cellar and below that a repository of prehistoric pottery, bones, and skulls. "I thought, of course, that he [Freud] would accept the cellars below this cellar [i.e., the personal unconscious], but the dreams [during the writing of his first book, from 1910 to 1912] were preparing me for the contrary" (McGuire, 1989). In fact, Freud acknowledged primordial ancestral patterns but regarded them as simply inheritable traits (Lamarckianism) posited in each individual (the biogenetic law). For Freud such experiences were phylogenetic recapitulations unrelated to a transcendent structure such as the collective unconscious, but for Jung they arise anew from the collective unconscious in each person in each instance just as they did in one's ancestors.

By 1925 Jung had theorized that the collective unconscious and the external world are opposites between which lies the observing ego which accesses the collective unconscious through the anima or animus and the world through the persona. The personal unconscious of Freud is regarded as the shadow of the ego. This schema remained unchanged for Jung.

Jung's collective unconscious can be seen as a variation within the tradition of philosophical idealism. It shares characteristics with the Apeiron of Anaximander, the One of Parmenides, and the Forms of Plato. It also calls to mind the Pleroma of the Gnostics, the Categories of Emmanuel Kant, and the Will of Arthur Schopenhauer. What justifies Jung's notion as psychology and not philosophy is his insistence that the collective unconscious is an empirical fact attested to by the common experiences of humankind over many ages and cultures. Jung's proof is phenomenological, and he avoids claiming a priori truths whether or not he believes they exist.

In spite of his avoidance of ontological affirmations, Jung often appears to suggest that the collective unconscious is a metaphysical reality, which invites less sophisticated analysts to engage in ideological thinking and inflated claims to transcendent knowledge. In his review of Jung's autobiography, Winnicott says that the positing of a collective unconscious results from Jung's split psyche and "was part of his attempt to deal with his lack of contact with what could now be called the unconscious-according-to-Freud." (Winnicott, 1964) With this criticism, Winnicott dismissed Jung's and perhaps all efforts to speculate about and derive heuristic guidelines consonant with an ultimate ground against which lie subjectivity, consciousness, and the very mystery of life. As Jung points out, the alternative is a void.

2007-10-23 09:35:27 · answer #1 · answered by Zappster (Deep Thunker) 6 · 0 0

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2016-10-07 11:43:24 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Aesity means self-existence. Aesity explains the metaphysical nature of God as a purely self-existent being that exists in complete actuality. God is not a being that is created by another god; neither does God create himself into existence. Rather, God has always existed as an unchanging, completely actualized being.


God has his Being of himself and to himself such that he is Absolute being and the definition of existence.
Since God’s essence is his nature and God’s existence is the same as his essence it follows that God is existence.

2007-10-30 07:52:05 · answer #3 · answered by cashelmara 7 · 0 0

That depends on what you mean by God. Consciousness is the source of physical reality, and if God refers to the manifest, then Consciousness is God. (You could view that as the collective mind). However, Consciousness arises from and within what is often called Awareness, and being the source of Consciousness, this is the Isness of all that is manifest and unmanifest.

Consciousness comes and goes in it's various forms, but Awareness remains unchanged and undisturbed. Both are present in you now. You are conscious as long as you are awake, but you are also aware of being conscious. When you are unconscious, you are not 'aware of' anything, you are simply Awareness itself. This is the essence of what is called God.

2007-10-23 17:40:49 · answer #4 · answered by philmeta11 3 · 0 1

I don't think God exists independently from anybody/thing.

2007-10-23 09:26:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

God exists with or without us. He is not dependent on our faith of him. He existed long before we were even here, after all. We, however cannot exist without him, regardless of what some others may say.

2007-10-23 09:35:38 · answer #6 · answered by kelly 2 · 0 1

We as believers have a very loving, caring personal God who supplies all our needs

2007-10-23 09:31:11 · answer #7 · answered by sego lily 7 · 0 0

We are cells of the whole.

2007-10-23 09:27:34 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

or if all humans are dead, would god die too?!

2007-10-23 09:31:46 · answer #9 · answered by the most oblivious wig-gur 2 · 0 0

YES...... that is my final answer

2007-10-23 09:29:27 · answer #10 · answered by nacsez 6 · 0 0

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