Is Isaiah 7:10 about Jesus or something else entirely different?

Question

Back story:

Isaiah 7:1-2

1 Now it came about in the days of Ahaz, the son of Jotham, the son of Uzziah, king of Judah, that Rezin the king of Aram and Pekah the son of Remaliah, king of Israel, went up to Jerusalem to wage war against it, but could not conquer it. 2 When it was reported to the house of David, saying, "The Arameans have camped in Ephraim," his heart and the hearts of his people shook as the trees of the forest shake with the wind.

7:10-

10 Then the LORD spoke again to Ahaz, saying, 11 "Ask a sign for yourself from the LORD your God; make it deep as Sheol or high as heaven." 12 But Ahaz said, "I will not ask, nor will I test the LORD!" 13 Then he said, "Listen now, O house of David! Is it too slight a thing for you to try the patience of men, that you will try the patience of my God as well? 14 "Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, a virgin will be with child and bear a son, and she will call His name Immanuel. 15 "He will eat curds and honey at the time He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. 16 "For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken.

Virgin also means young woman.

Answer 1

Entirely different, here's why:

Verses 11 and 16 do a perfect job of putting verse 14 in its proper context. "Before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings." This means the conflict will be resolved shortly after the child is born. This event is to take place within Ahaz’s lifetime, more than 500 years before Jesus was born. What sense does it make to offer a sign to Ahaz if it wasn’t going to come to pass within his lifetime?

One of the things you have to ask when looking at this scriture: Is Immanuel mentioned anywhere else other than in Isaiah 7:14?

Isaiah 8:5 The LORD spake also unto me again, saying, [6] Forasmuch as this people refuseth the waters of Shiloah that go softly, and rejoice in Rezin and Remaliah's son; [7] Now therefore, behold, the Lord bringeth up upon them the waters of the river, strong and many, [even] the king of Assyria, and all his glory: and he shall come up over all his channels, and go over all his banks: [8] And he shall pass through Judah; he shall overflow and go over, he shall reach [even] to the neck; and the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of thy land, O Immanuel. [9] Associate yourselves, O ye people, and ye shall be broken in pieces; and give ear, all ye of far countries: gird yourselves, and ye shall be broken in pieces; gird yourselves, and ye shall be broken in pieces. [10] Take counsel together, and it shall come to nought; speak the word, and it shall not stand: for G-d [is] with us. (KJV)

So, we see Immanuel mentioned in the very next chapter of Isaiah.

Isaiah 8:18 Behold, I and the children whom the LORD hath given me [are] for signs and for wonders in Israel from the LORD of hosts, which dwelleth in mount Zion. (KJV)

So, we see the Lord gave Immanuel to Isaiah to use as a sign for Israel, just like chapter 7 of Isaiah indicated. We see now what happens when you read scripture in its proper context.

p.s. Double fullfillment is totally alien to biblical scripture. The poster above me has not done their homework.

Answer 2

Most likely, it's a prophecy that had a double fulfillment.

1.)A young woman from the house of Ahaz who was not married would marry and have a son. Before three years passed the two invading kings would be destroyed.

2.) Matthew 1:23 quotes Isaiah 7:14 to show a further fulfillment of this prophecy in that a virgin named Mary conceived and bore a son, Immanuel, the Christ.

Answer 3

Some scholars claim that the "child born of a virgin" is actually speaking about a child that was born During Isaiah's lifetime. I've noticed that when people pick out verses like that to try to fit it into Jesus' life, the context of the verses do not fit with what is written about Jesus. Probably why they only take One Verse and make it prophetic and leave all of the others before and after it alone. That's like picking one line out of Shakespear and claiming it to be prophetic for my life.... You can make almost anything fit then.

Answer 4

I believe it's telling us that we can ask God to prove answers so to speak. If your praying for an answer regarding something we can put a "fleece" before the Lord saying Lord if it be your will for me to do this show me a sign. I think that's what it's speaking of. Because some people don't know how to pray for signs and wonders. Their scared as the people in the verse. I don't have my Bible at work with me and unfortunately that's where I am so that is the best answer I have for now sorry :)

Answer 5

No, it is not.

The original Hebrew word is "alma" which means young woman. The word was translated to virgin by some Christian translations (e.g. KJV) for obvious reasons.

However, the context of the verses you quote imply nothing about a virgin birth or any event that was to take place hundreds of years after the time of Isaiah.

Answer 6

To answer your question...yes!
God bless you.