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I think, we decide who our representatives are, they are people, like everyone, but when they reach to be politicians they forget why they are there, and works for their own interests

2007-10-23 06:58:01 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Civic Participation

6 answers

You have a valid point, but it is the electorate's job to recognize when there representative is no longer recognizing the will of there constituents and to vote them out of office.

2007-10-23 07:02:39 · answer #1 · answered by labken1817 6 · 4 0

That is a very good question for today's politics. Today, we live in a United States of America where individuality is highly regarded. It has been a gradual process since the days of Jefferson and Madison. In those days, Aristocracy was not near as opposed as it is today. In other words, the founders were not anywhere close to considering all people equal. The concept of "the people" back then did not include everyone who lived and breathed in America. Only men were allowed to vote. Only landowners had the right to vote. The individuals that were allowed to hold political office were white males. So, if we read something like the Second Amendment, http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/data/constitution/amendment02/, it would be reasonable to conclude the reference to "the people" would only include those individuals with the same practical rights regarded by the rest of the Constitution. In other words, "the people" would only be white, male, landowners. So, only white, male, landownders would have the right to bear arms. However, today it is assumed that a reference to "the people" means "all citizens of the United States". Strict Constructionist Judges (meaning: a judge that interprets the Constitution by what the founders intended it to mean) do not interpret "the people" to mean what most of us mean when we say "the people". If a strict Constructionist Judge were to interpret "the people" to mean all American citizens, then they wouldn't be a strict Constructionist. I can't find the reference on Findlaw, but I know I read a letter where Jefferson told Madison that it would be a good idea to have a real Constitutional Convention every 200 years or so because of the changes in language and culture. Sorry I cannot find it yet. But, your question "Who is the people in a country?" is definitely a reason for having a serious Federal Constitutional Convention in Congress. The fact that most Americans interpret "the people" to mean ALL American citizens should be made abundantly clear.

2007-10-23 11:17:17 · answer #2 · answered by barchanon 3 · 0 0

Seeker, sounds like you were borne yesterday with the question you ask. The powers that be have an agenda and they could care less how their agenda gets accompleshed - through the Rep. party or Dem. Nobody but nobody gets to run for anything until they have agreed to this agenda. President Clinton, a Dem. signing NAFTA is an excellent example of a politician following the agenda. Pres. Kennedy is an excellent example of a politician who was not following the script.
Seeker, it doesn't matter who you vote for the Agenda comes first.

2007-10-23 11:04:11 · answer #3 · answered by Dave M 7 · 0 0

This question has always been classic to me.
-from the "representative" point of view-
If 'I" or "you" did become a representative - ....
were we entrusted that title to reflect the constituency
views and wished OR did "we" receive the approval to
exercise our judgement based on facts open to "us"
due to and from facts known to someone in the rep. capacity only. How is communication (people/rep.) facilitated? And maintained? And are not "they" our employees?

2007-10-23 16:51:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In France too.

2007-10-27 06:41:13 · answer #5 · answered by poulperaler 2 · 0 0

is English your first language..??

2007-10-23 07:01:37 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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