Why some Protestants believe it is written from the plenary scripture?
2007-10-23 03:51:50 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The original KJV as written in 1611 was developed because of King James the 1st dislike of the Geneva Bible. The original decree to rewrite had come through Queen Elizabeth but because of the threat of the Spanish and near bancruptcy of the English Court there wasn't the money. Scots didn't have that problem and so here comes James...
"Could never yet see a Bible well translated in English; but I think that, of all, that of Geneva is the worst. I wish some special pains were taken for an uniform translation, which should be done by he best learned men in both Universities, then reviewed by the Bishops, presented to the Privy Council, lastly ratified by the Royal authority, to be read in the whole Church, and none other."
Accordingly, a resolution came forth:
"That a translation be made of the whole Bible, as consonant as can be to the original Hebrew and Greek; and this to be set out and printed, without any marginal notes, and only to be used in all churches of England in time of divine service."
The translators were selected and they had a multitude of sources from which to draw from: "Neither did we think much to consult the Translators or Commentators, Chaldee, Hebrew, Syrian, Greek, or Latin, no nor the Spanish, French, Italian, or Dutch." The Greek editions of Erasmus, Stephanus, and Beza were all accessible, as were the Complutensian and Antwerp Polyglots, and the Latin translations of Pagninus, Termellius, and Beza.
Even today..with the discovery of the dead sea scrolls...when the scriptures are compared...there are very few errors...such are lampstand for candle stick and sheol for hell...there are some of these but they are few and far between and as such don't detract from scriptural integrity. As well, the original 1611 version containted the Apocrypha. Love in Christ, ~J~
Check out Revelation 11
2007-10-23 04:14:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Some say Shakespeare wrote the KJV, and he had been initiated into the Mysteries. If that is true, it might be why there are hints to esoteric thinking in the KJV, you won't find in some others. Mostly Newer Translations. Who by their very nature, were written to be easier to understand. Therefore, anything the translaters didn't understand, they changed.
2007-10-23 03:58:09 · answer #2 · answered by THE NEXT LEVEL 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not written in Middle English -- which covers the 11th-15th centuries.. It is written in the 17th century.
It was not translated from the Latin Vulgate -- but from Greek and Hebrew texts.
Did you even get one fact correct?
2007-10-23 04:00:43 · answer #3 · answered by Ranto 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. The KJV did not come from the Latin Vulgate. They did what they could to separate themselves from the Catholic Church.
2007-10-23 03:56:22 · answer #4 · answered by tcjstn 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Bingo! It says so in the KJV cover! If not in its entierity then most of it! A lot of Jesuit scholars were contracted to help in the translation of the KJV!
2007-10-23 04:00:46 · answer #5 · answered by Opus 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's Early Modern English, not Middle English.
Wyclif's Bible was in Middle English:
For God louede so the world that he yaf his oon bigetun sone, that ech man that beliueth in him perische not, but haue euerlastynge lijf.
2007-10-23 03:57:11 · answer #6 · answered by Doc Occam 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
wrong it comes from the Masoretic Text and Textus Receptus. What those are and where they came from? I have no idea, actually curious.
2007-10-23 03:56:04 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋