When the different texts and letters were written that later were chosen to constitute the New Testament, there WAS NO Bible. The only book that could then have been called "the Bible" was the Scriptures now called the Old Testament by the Christians. Thus, the texts themselves can impossibly refer to what is now called the Bible, but by then didn't exist.
If you for example read the quote from Galatians 1:8-10 (see Sandra P's answer above) as if it literally referred to the Gospels that was then accepted, you will have very great problems to explain why the Church later accepted the four Gospels in the New Testament, since they weren't even written at the time of Paul's writing the letter to the Galatians (which is, incidentally, one of the oldest writings in the New Testament).
Jesus could of course not have said this, since not a single letter of the New Testament was written by the time of his worldly life.
Don't confuse the biblical use of the words "the Word" (the pre-existent Logos, that has far greater implications than a physical collection of texts) and "the Gospel" (the English translation of the Greek word "euangelion", meaning "good message", which refers to the Salvation work of Jesus Christ, which has far greater significance that a physical collection of texts) with the actual texts of the Bible, which didn't exist by then.
2007-10-22 05:41:35
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answer #1
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answered by juexue 6
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Now how do we know that your assessment of the Bible is correct? DSS manuscripts took us back a ways-much farther back than 300 a.d. Re-written, revised and re-translated, missing chapters?? You do not know this! You are repeating someone who has an ax to grind. You can not possibly know this any more than an atheists can know there is no God. But,....mastering original languages is imperative for serious Bible students,as is the study of interpretation. Yes, there are several methods of interpretation taught. This is unfortunate. Only one can be correct. Just because some are wrong, does not mean all are wrong. The literal, historical, grammatical method seems to yield consistency throughout. "Context" is always king in translation, so there should be no need to use a word out of context. Dallas Theological Seminary has a good handle on interpretation, as do most Baptists and Presbyterians schools. The Churches of Christ (not "united") do fairly well also. Many scholars have gone through these schools. They would disagree with your opinion.
2016-05-24 04:16:27
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answer #2
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answered by ? 3
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As the inability of Bible-only believers to answer demonstrates, neither Jesus nor the Bible makes the claim that the Bible is the only word of God.
That claim was made by Martin Luther (1483-1546).
John 1 explains that Jesus Christ himself is the only Word of God. Those who claim the collection of books in the Bible is the Word of God may have missed this chapter. Mistaking a collection of inspired books for the Word of God is idolatry.
As Born-again Catholic points out, the final verse in John specifically says that many of Jesus' teachings were not included in the Bible, and that "if every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written."
Cheers,
Bruce
2007-10-22 06:15:09
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answer #3
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answered by Bruce 7
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It doesn't. But it does say:
"Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written." (John 21:25)
and
"So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the teachings we passed on to you, whether by word of mouth or by letter." (2 Thess. 2:15)
2007-10-22 05:54:16
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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The Apostle Paul warned: "But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed. As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed." Galatians 1:8, 9
The Apostle John warned: "and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book." Revelation 22:19
2007-10-22 05:25:56
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answer #5
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answered by the sower 4
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Let me know when you find out. I asked this question a while back with the same criteria and most of the responses were "in the Bible" or the like. I was disappointed that the fundamentalists didn't jump all over this one.
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AvYGWtgyoGe4Sw9L_JYGl9Lty6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20070822122610AAwdfxU
2007-10-22 05:03:45
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answer #6
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answered by metanoia 3
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Galatians 1:8-10 says, But even if we, or an angel from heaven, preach ANY OTHER GOSPEL to you than what we have preached to you, let him be accursed. As we have said before, so now I SAY AGAIN, if anyone preaches any other gospel to you than what you have RECEIVED, let him be ACCURSED. For do I now persuade men or God? Or do I seek to please men? For if I still pleased men, I would be NOT a bondservant of Christ.
The Bible is the ONLY Gospel!!
God Bless you,
Sandra P.
2007-10-22 05:14:09
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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im not aware of one. Good point. Which is why the book of Mormon has been accepted in the LDS community as a book of faith and "truth" according to their cult. Even with all the differeces between the 2 books, i guess its fine, because the bible itself contradicts itself every few verses. I shall now procede to write The Book of Foamy, and claim it divine, and create my own Christian Faith, the Foamy Card Cult and RULE THE WORLD according to gods teachings of course.
2007-10-22 05:03:52
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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It doesn't say that. That's why the Catholic Church teaches that the Bible, while certainly the prime rule of faith for Christians, is not the sole rule of faith.
...
2007-10-22 05:15:08
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Mathew or John
2007-10-22 07:11:57
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answer #10
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answered by Susas 6
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