2007-10-21 23:00:41 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Cars & Transportation ➔ Insurance & Registration
Yes. Depending on the wording of the policy for the specific coverage involved,1 will assume primary and the other secondary, OR they each will pay their pro-rata share. Assuming of course, the accident did not occur during an excluded event such a commision of a felony, employment, for hire, etc..unless one or both of the policies specifically allow coverage for such an event, such as business use of the vehicle.
2007-10-22 16:52:24 · answer #1 · answered by bundysmom 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. But I guess no one would stop you if you did. Why would you pay for 2? Only one will pay out if there is a loss. Or, each would pay 1/2 of the loss. Or, worst case, they both say the other should pay & neither pays. You will not get double the payment for 2 policies. It doesn't work that way. There are databases that would show if there is other collectible insurance in place.
2007-10-21 23:35:33 · answer #2 · answered by Sue 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Well... you can pay for two policies but only one is going to pay for a claim. Seems like a waste of money to me. Don't even try to do a double claim unless you want to be arrested for fraud.
2007-10-22 04:31:22 · answer #3 · answered by sensible_man 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can but if you collect on both it is insurance fraud. So why pay for both of them?
2007-10-22 00:27:27 · answer #4 · answered by dbc 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no. why do you need 2? one is good enough.
2007-10-21 23:07:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
WHY WOULD YOU DO THAT ?????????????
2007-10-22 02:06:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋