In the qualifications for a bishop, or pastor, in 1 Timothy 3, one of the qualifications is that he be the "husband of one wife". Do you think this is talking about divorce?
2007-10-21 15:55:37 · 17 answers · asked by Virginia B (John 16:33) 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Depends on the church.
However.....Isnt in under the blood of Christ? And how is his walk with God? Is there Godly fruit?
I agree with the poster regarding Paul. But lets look a little farther....Abraham was lier. Jacob was a thief. David was a murderer. Rehab was a prostitute. Moses was a murderer. Gideon was lacking faith. Peter denied Christ 3x. Thomas doubted the risen Christ.....And I'm sure there's lots more. So whats the problem with divorce. Sin is Sin...but a repentant heart is forgiven.
And how do we know that the one who is at fault is the man. Maybe the woman was the unbelieving spouse...or the wrong doer....
These things need to be pondered before we point a finger and judge.
If God wants to use a person, no matter what he looks like to man....God will make a way....he will train them to what he wants them to be.....we cant stop that...or God.
2007-10-21 16:43:02 · answer #1 · answered by bandaidgirl 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
I think the circumstances of that divorce REALLY needs to be evaluated. IF a church going, faithful Christian man gets a divorce than no probably shouldn't be a pastor. If the man get's a divorce and he wasn't in good standing with Jesus Christ at the time MAYBE he should be considered. I really and truely don't think the issue in 1 Timothy 3 is about divorce.
How about this? Can a murderer be a pastor of a Church? What about Paul in the Bible? Remember Saul the persecutor? You explain how Saul can be considered the greatest Missionary and his words become part of the Bible when he was a murderer but a man that got divorced can not be a pastor.
2007-10-21 16:07:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
How To Go To Heaven
1. Realize you are a sinner Romans 3:23 exp. lying,cussing,gossip,fornication
2. Punishment for sin-Lake of Fire Revelation 20:15
3. Salvation is not in good deeds,baptism.or religion Titus 3:5
4. Salvation is 100% in Jesus Christ, The True God John 14:6
5. Jesus Christ died on the cross for all your sins,shed His blood,
buried,and came alive. Romans 10:9
6. Trust in Christ and His shed blood on the cross only for salvation.
7. Right now pray,"Dear Lord Jesus Christ,please be my Savior and Lord,
I trust in your blood at the cross,you were buried,and came alive,please
come into heart and save me,I am a sinner,Amen." Romans 10:13
8. If you prayed and accepted Christ, heaven is your home. John 3:16
9. Go to a Baptist church next Sunday
10. Read the Old King James Bible everyday
11. Every day pray to the Lord
2014-06-24 13:27:27 · answer #3 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not up to us to Judge! If God had forgiven him then the slate is clean! Yes a divorced man can be a Pastor of a Church,If God who is perfect can forgive then why not us?
2007-10-22 01:54:23 · answer #4 · answered by Pamela V 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes a divorced man can be a pastor, if His wife chooses to divorce Him. If He is married, he is to have only one wife not several wives at one time.
2007-10-21 16:49:21 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
God got divorced. " I gave faithless Israel her certificate of divorce and sent her away because of all her adulteries." Jer 3:8
Is God qualified to pastor a church? I would think so.
2007-10-21 16:07:01 · answer #6 · answered by Steve Amato 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
it all depend (if) i answered with the fear of the lord. if there was unfaithful in between. i would no, you are right with the scripture. Jesus Christ hate divorced. there way where a man can give a divorced to his wife unfaithful. second it not divorced in when one died he is free to get marry.
2007-10-21 16:47:21 · answer #7 · answered by levineeddie 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Maybe. But it could also be talking about polygamy which was common during that time.
It doesn't say "divorced". It says "husband of one wife" so it sounds more like it's saying no polygamy to me.
2007-10-21 16:00:30 · answer #8 · answered by ? 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
"... he be the "husband of one wife". Do you think this is talking about divorce?" - No, this is taking about being a widower, as his wife died, and he did not remarry.
Today any man or woman can be anything they want.
2007-10-21 16:07:52 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Not as long as his first wife lives. The first wife is still bound to the husband. That is why in Mathew 19.9 it describes that if someone marries the first wife, then they commit adultery.
2015-01-30 19:25:14 · answer #10 · answered by Gregg 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋