(Genesis 9:25) he said, "I now put a curse on Canaan! He will be the lowest slave of his brothers. CEV
(Genesis 9:25) And he said, Cursed be Canaan; a servant of servants shall he be unto his brethren. KJV
2007-10-21 11:40:43 · 7 answers · asked by MoPleasure4U 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I think its very possible. People have been twisting the scripture to suit their needs of opression over women and others for many years. Jesus brought us freedom and love, not opression and abuse. Gods peace to you :)
2007-10-21 11:44:16 · answer #1 · answered by Loosid 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The curse on Canaan saw its fulfillment some eight centuries after its pronouncement, when Canaan’s descendants were subjugated by the Semitic Israelites, later coming under the domination of the Japhetic powers of Medo-Persia, Greece, and Rome.
Cush is very evidently a principal progenitor (perhaps along with Put) of the dark-complexioned branch of the human family as is indicated by the areas of settlement of certain of his descendants. This disproves the theory advanced by those who incorrectly endeavor to apply to the ***** peoples the curse pronounced on Canaan, for Canaan, the brother of Cush, did not produce any ***** descendants but, rather, was the forefather of the various Canaanite tribes of Palestine. (Ge 9:24, 25; 10:6) There is, therefore, no Scriptural connection whatsoever between the dark complexion of certain descendants of Cush and the curse pronounced on Canaan.
2007-10-21 18:47:52 · answer #2 · answered by The Uncanny Comic 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I don't know if anyone ever required biblical support for slavery because I don't think anyone felt like they needed god to say slavery was OK because they considered the slaves sub-human, so the regular rules didn't apply.
Slavery started long before the west came into existence, so there was precedence that made it acceptable in the day and they didn't need to justify it all over again with the bible. It was just the way things were and it was accepted from waaay back in the bible and in historical time too.
2007-10-21 18:59:43 · answer #3 · answered by Mikey 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
People have attempted to use that verse to justify slavery, trying to claim that the descends of Canaan are the black races which are to be slaves to the white races.
However, if you read the rest of the Bible, you will discover that the children of Canaan remained in Israel, and would become the Canaanites, who would be slain or placed into bondage under Moses and Joshua. They never became the "black races".
So there is no Bible basis to support black slavery from that verse.
2007-10-21 18:50:47 · answer #4 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Old Testaments commandments weree done away with with the death of Jesus Christ,thus Christianity began, The Old Testament laws (914) wer for only the Jews at that time.
2007-10-21 18:52:40 · answer #5 · answered by ♥ Mel 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What a dumb reason!!!!!
People can interpret anything in the Bible and say, "oh, it means this"..........for example the Tower of Babel. A Christian university I know of uses that as an excuse that interracial marriages should not be aloud.........their own interpretation.........
2007-10-22 20:03:59 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope, Slavery is about one thing and one thing only. MONEY
If you don't have to pay for labor you profit margin increases. No biblical reasons Just Greed.
2007-10-21 18:45:03 · answer #7 · answered by R B 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋