2007-10-21 09:17:41 · 21 answers · asked by WildChild 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Do you mean have!
Christians and Muslims.
2007-10-21 09:21:11 · answer #1 · answered by Soleil 4 · 12⤊ 0⤋
It never happened. Gospel of Philip, "Some say Mary conceived by the Holy Spirit, but they do not know what they are talking about. How can a woman conceive by a woman?"
The fact that the Holy Spirit is female has been hidden by the churches because it it is one of many spiritual things the churches do not understand. Rather than trying to understand they sweep them under the rug. But I digress.
The boy Jesus was conceived as any other boy is. Based on the best information we have today his father was a Sardinian archer in the Roman army. The Christ, spirit, that resided in Jesus and was the Son of God was born from the virgin Holy Spirit.
2007-10-21 16:55:31 · answer #2 · answered by Ray T 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God said it! In the case of Mary, the mother of Jesus, she was a virgin and had never known a man in any way...God caused her to become pregnant. If you believe he created us, why is it so hard to believe he could cause a virgin to become pregnant? If you don't believe he created us, they why bother asking this question?
Keep in mind that a virgin can get pregnant even without divine intervention. Pregnancy happens when a sperm joins with an egg. Sperm can swim, and they can live for up to four hours after released. A girl can still be a virgin, in that her hymen is still intact, but get pregnant if a man ejaculates near the entrance to her vagina. The sperm can enter her body through the same hole in the hymen that allows the blood to exit during her period! It is VERY rare, but it has happened...ask any OB/GYN!
2007-10-21 16:36:28 · answer #3 · answered by KAL 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Isaiah was the prophet who said A virgin shall conceive and bear a son. (Isaiah 7:14) The virgin Mary was a virgin just like the prophet said. No matter what others think about her just being a "young girl" She herself told the angel that she had never been with a man. She was indeed a "virgin" in the biblical (physical) sense. (luke 1:24) Hope this helps
2007-10-21 16:30:59 · answer #4 · answered by Yo C 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
True that the term taken from Isaiah's account means young maiden. In Matthew and Luke in fulfillment of this prophecy it shows that this young maiden Mary had no intercourse with any man and so was considered pure in a sexual sense. When young women were betrothed in marriage they were considered promised to that one, like two people who were engaged. In the 1st century Jewish culture a man and women who were betrothed were considered married, but their vows did not take full effect until they lay with each other and consummated their marriage.
Mary was considered pure as a woman who had not consummated her marriage at the time when God sent his seed, his Son the one foretold as the Christ to be implanted into the womb of Mary.
2007-10-21 16:43:18 · answer #5 · answered by Marina 1 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"Isiash 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."
The King James Version mistranslates the Hebrew word "almah", which means "young woman" as "virgin". (The Hebrew word, "bethulah", means "virgin".) In addition, the young woman referred to in this verse was living at the time of the prophecy. And Jesus, of course, was called Jesus -- and is not called Emmanuel in any verse in the New Testament.
2007-10-21 16:28:47 · answer #6 · answered by big puffy shoes 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, without getting graphic, it is possible. If those little swimmers get ejected in proximity to the ... well, let's say they can make their way up there. It's rare, but it has been known to happen.
2007-10-21 16:29:50 · answer #7 · answered by milomax 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A virgin can have invetro without ever having known the touch of a man. In the future, I suppose someone could even clone themselves.
2007-10-21 16:25:24 · answer #8 · answered by voidedlives 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
It sure wasn't Isaiah 7.14. The Hebrew word there doesn't mean virgin.
.
2007-10-21 16:20:51 · answer #9 · answered by Weird Darryl 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
The Bible, apparently we can't really confirm if it existed or not. I find it very suspicious that supernatural miracles like this only happened during a time and places that have less of a scientific infrastructure and more traditions of superstition. But, maybe you define what you meant by "make", we might be in a wrong page here.
2007-10-21 16:22:25 · answer #10 · answered by 8theist 6 · 1⤊ 5⤋
It only happened one time, and God said it.
The Hebrew word DOES mean virgin and not "unmarried young woman -"
for one thing, this event was going to be a miraculous SIGN. What kind of miraculous sign would it be for a young unmarried girl to get pregnant?
For that reason, the Jewish people were EXPECTING a virgin to conceive and give birth.
2007-10-21 16:20:36 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 5⤊ 5⤋