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on this because I would like to have some solid answers on why she was thought to be that????????

2007-10-19 11:26:05 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

23 answers

There is a pretty good link at wikipedia, which I have put into the "sources" box below.

However, the version I would like to present is the one from Carl Olson, "The Da Vinci Hoax," which says (as I remember) that a pope (Gregory I?) used three Mary-s from the gospels in a sermon aimed more at moral and spiritual topics than historical ones, and in his sermon he wasn't too careful about which Mary was which.

In any event, I have noted some of the answers here and will say a word or two in reply: Saints often had lurid or immoral pasts, so to say that prostitution is ascribed to Mary Magdalene in order to belittle her or taint her misses the point, bigtime. See for instance St. Mary of Egypt (wikipedia link below). FWIW, Eastern Orthodoxy does not identify Mary Magdalene as a prostitute.

Furthermore, St. Mary Magdalene, far from being marginalized, is an important figure in Eastern Orthodoxy, called "the apostle to the apostles" and is given the designation "equal to the apostles" ("isapostle" in Greek). She was the first to see the risen Christ.

I ask people please to be a little more careful in ascribing motives and values to people from another time and culture, and please gather a few more facts before making grand pronouncements condemning or criticizing others.

And I commend the person who asked the question.

Blessings on all who asked and answered here.

2007-10-19 11:54:53 · answer #1 · answered by wilsonch0 3 · 1 0

Luke 8:2 And certain women, which had been healed of evil spirits and infirmities, Mary called Magdalene, out of whom went seven devils,

Mary Magdalene's reputation as a prostitute is pure conjecture.
Perhaps the most damning evidence is the above verse from Luke. It is FAR from verifiable proof.

2007-10-19 11:38:31 · answer #2 · answered by Bob L 7 · 0 1

some Bible historians have self belief that definite, she or a minimum of the female component grew to become into written out of the classic Gospels and that she is given plenty bigger status in countless Gnostic records, even regardless of the undeniable fact that many are incomplete and that's understood that plenty have been destroyed. Gnostics have been Christians (Christian Gnostics) and Christianity could've been Valentinian Gnostic Christianity yet yet another guy have been given picked over Valentinus by way of fact the 1st bishop and that formed the direction of Christian doctrine and literature. Many Gnostics understood the Christ tale to be metaphorical---no longer fairly.

2016-10-07 06:06:14 · answer #3 · answered by vaden 4 · 0 0

John 8

2007-10-19 11:32:30 · answer #4 · answered by bobalo9 4 · 0 2

There is no documentation that can back up that fact. Not in the scrolls or the bible will you find the answer. What is does show is that she was the Mother of the Virgin Mary...........

2007-10-19 13:02:28 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

It's because she is a woman, and catholics back then had a problem with women having any form of authority, so the undermined her to make people think she was scum.

she was probably really nice, and could have been Jesus's lover for all we know

2007-10-19 11:33:04 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

She wasn't. She was high Priestess in Paganism. They wanted to take out a women importance and man control. She may even had been Jesus wife. Funny how they took a lot of thing and twisted them for their benefit.

2007-10-19 13:17:10 · answer #7 · answered by Barry D 1 · 1 0

That was a statement made by a priest about 400 years ago that WASN'T true. The Catholic Church has admitted that and issued a formal apology to her...dunno how she's gonna get it, tho

2007-10-19 12:14:14 · answer #8 · answered by woodlandknome 3 · 1 0

some say she was Jesus wife,but if true it go against organized teachings,so naturally she would be discredited

there are more biblical scripts about her left out of the bible for this reason

there is a gospel book of Mary,I don't know where you'd find it the catholics tried to erase it

it is rumored to be part of ''the divinci code''becuse speaking of it at the time would surely result in death,so he left hints of it

2007-10-19 11:38:11 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

I believe she was accused of this 300-400 years after the fact in order to make a point about how evil women are.

2007-10-19 11:30:42 · answer #10 · answered by Alan 7 · 3 1

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