the faith of this cult who deceptively call themselves JEHOVA's witnesses collapses when you prove that JESUS CHRIST and JEHOVA are one .
john 10:30
"I and the FATHER are one"
and john 1:1
so why on earth do they deny the trinity?
btw check out http://www.waltermartin.com/jehwit.html
2007-10-19
10:36:55
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12 answers
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asked by
michael_g
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
oh and also:
8Philip said, "Lord, show us the Father and that will be enough for us."
9Jesus answered: "Don't you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? 10Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and that the Father is in me? The words I say to you are not just my own. Rather, it is the Father, living in me, who is doing his work. 11Believe me when I say that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the miracles themselves.
2007-10-19
10:41:01 ·
update #1
apparently when the BIBLE says JESUS is with GOD and JESUS is GOD it means that in identity personality,power,equality,eternity,etc.. and Characteristic JESUS is GOD. and JESUS(or EMANNUEL meaning GOD with us)is GOD in human form is with GOD the FATHER.
therefore in the case of the trinity someone that is with one person can be that person.
2007-10-19
10:51:11 ·
update #2
then why did JESUS say to philip don't you know me?
he was praying to his FATHER who is one with him. and is in him .
2007-10-19
11:16:21 ·
update #3
Jehovah's Witnesses are really Watchtowerites.
They follow the Watchtower Magazines rather than the Bible. That's why they keep on finding "holes" in the Bible and say that it has some "errors."
2007-10-19 10:59:32
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answer #1
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answered by monica80 3
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John 14:28 You heard that I said to you, I am going away and I am coming back to you. If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am.
Mark 13:32 Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father.
1Cor. 11:3 But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ, in turn the head of a woman is the man, in turn the head of the Christ is God.
John 17:3-5 This means everlasting life, their taking in knowlege of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ. I have glorified you on the earth, having finished the work you have given me to do. So now you, Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was.
There are so many more scriptures that disprove the trinity.
2007-10-19 12:17:51
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answer #2
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answered by Meemaw's Pride & Joy 5
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pattscool
Theres many Bibles that translate John 1:1 the same way the Jehovah's Witnesses do.
Ancient Coptic texts 300AD "the Word was a god"
Harwood, 1768, "and was himself a divine person"
Newcome, 1808, "and the word was a god"
Thompson, 1829, "the Logos was a god
Goodspeed, 1939, "the Word was divine
Torrey, 1947, "the Word was god
These are just a few translations.
UPDATE:
Iron Serpent basically answered your question, so I'll give you some scriptures to think about.
Jesus calls his Father the true God.
John 17:3
And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
And others (1 Thessalonians 1:9,1 John 5:20)
1Corinthians 8:6: yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live...
Jesus calls his Father my God on Earth (John 20:17)
Jesus calls his Father my God in Heaven (Revelation 3:12)
Revelation 3:14
"To the angel of the church in Laodicea write: The Amen, the faithful and true Witness, the Beginning of the creation of God, says this:
2007-10-19 11:56:29
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answer #3
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answered by VMO 4
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If this verse were interpreted to mean Jesus was himself God Almighty, it would contradict the preceding statement, “the Word was with God.” Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as that other person. Many Bible translations thus draw a distinction, making clear that the Word was not God Almighty. For example, a sampling of Bible translations say the following: “The Word was a God,” “a god was the Word,” and “the Word was divine.”
Bible verses that in the Greek language have a construction similar to that of John 1:1 use the expression “a god.” For example, when referring to Herod Agrippa I, the crowds shouted: ‘It is a god speaking.’ And when Paul survived a bite by a poisonous snake, the people said: “He is a god.” (Acts 12:22; 28:3-6) It is in harmony with both Greek grammar and Bible teaching to speak of the Word as, not God, but “a god.”—John 1:1.
Consider how John identified “the Word” in the first chapter of his Gospel. “The Word became flesh and resided among us,” he wrote, “and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs [not to God but] to an only-begotten son from a father.” So “the Word,” who became flesh, lived on the earth as the man Jesus and was seen by people. Therefore, he could not have been Almighty God, regarding whom John says: “No man has seen God at any time.”—John 1:14, 18.
Since Jesus is on earth and his Father is in heaven, clearly he is not saying that he and his Father are literally, or physically, one. Rather, he means that they are one in purpose or are at unity.
2007-10-19 10:43:20
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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As God’s people, we understand many things that we could not otherwise have known. We know the answers to questions that worldly-wise men have grappled with for millenniums. For example, we know why suffering exists, why people die, and why humans cannot achieve global peace and unity. We have also been blessed with a vision of what the future holds—the Kingdom of God, a paradise earth, and endless life in perfection. We have come to know Jehovah, the Supreme One. We have learned about his appealing personality along with what we must do to enjoy his blessing. Knowing the truth enables us to recognize what is not true. Applying the truth protects us from fruitless pursuits, enables us to get the best out of life, and gives us a marvelous hope for the future. 7 Do you understand Bible truth? If so, you have been richly blessed. When an author writes a book, he or she usually fashions it to appeal to a specific group of people. Some books are written for the highly educated, others for children, still others for those in specialized fields. While the Bible is easily available to all, it is meant to be understood and appreciated by a particular group of people. Jehovah crafted it for the humble, the meek ones of the earth. Such people can grasp the sense of the Bible, whatever their education, culture, station in life, or ethnic group. (1 Timothy 2:3, 4) On the other hand, an understanding of Bible truth is denied to those not rightly disposed, no matter how intelligent or educated they may be. The haughty, the proud, cannot grasp the precious truths of God’s Word. (Matthew 13:11-15; Luke 10:21; Acts 13:48) Only God could produce such a book. Jesus taught in homes and revisited homes where there was special interest. (Luke 10:38-42; John 12:1-3) He continues to do so till this day, not in person, but representatively by his footstep followers: “Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me.”—Rev. 3:20.
2016-05-23 20:20:29
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answer #5
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answered by ? 3
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At John 17:21, 22, Jesus prayed to God that his disciples “may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, . . . that they may be one just as we are one.” Was Jesus praying that all his disciples would become a single entity? No, obviously Jesus was praying that they would be united in thought and purpose, as he and God were.
At Genesis 2:22, God creates Eve, she is then brought to Adam. God says in verse 24: "They must become one flesh." God was not suggesting that Adam and Eve would morph into one body, He poetically described the unity that would exist between husband and wife.
When the Bible speaks of the Son and the Father being 'one', it does not prove they are the same person. Besides, John 10:30 does not prove the Trinity because the Holy Spirit is not mentioned as being part of the union.
The same goes for John 1:1 - no mention of the Holy Spirit. As has been stated above, John 1:1 disproves the Trinity since it says that the Word was 'with' God. This is then re-iterated in verse 2. Then verse 18 says: "No man has seen God at any time." Yet thousands of people saw Jesus.
In the original Greek at John 1:1 there is a definite article before God when applied to Jehovah, but not when applied to the Word. Accordingly, modern translators render it: “The Word was divine.” (The Bible - An American Translation) “The Logos was divine.” (Moffat) “The Word was a god.” (New World Translation).
For Jesus to say: "He that has seen me has seen the Father" (John 14:9) is far different from him saying, ‘I am the Father.' Jesus had just told Philip and the other faithful apostles that he was going away to God his Father; and so how could Jesus in the same breath say that Philip, when looking at Jesus, was looking at the Father? Jesus could not have meant that, for he dissociated God his Father from himself, just as when he said: "Do not let your hearts be troubled. Exercise faith in God, exercise faith also in me."
Why the expression “also in me,” if Jesus were God himself? Philip asked Jesus: “Lord, show us the Father,” and Jesus answered that that was what he had been doing all along, showing them the Father. He had been explaining who his heavenly Father was and showing them what his heavenly Father was like. He imitated his Father. He was like him, so much so that when one saw Jesus it was as if seeing his Father.
How can Jesus be with 'with' God and be the Father in heaven at the same time? If Jesus was God in human form, he was also the Father and the Holy Spirit on earth.
Jesus was born a Jew. Christianity stemmed from Judaism. Jews do not believe the Trinity and never have.
2007-10-19 11:41:47
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answer #6
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answered by Iron Serpent 4
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Jesus also said that he and the apostles were "one" just as he and Jehovah were "one"
Did he mean they were one in the same way? Yes, he did.
They were one in thought and purpose and that is how Jesus and Jehovah were "one" (Father and Son both united and in perfect harmony with each other.)
Notice that the holy spirit is not even mentioned at John 10:30.
And a united, loving worldwide faith is not a cult. Jesus and his followers were considered a dangerous sect, but we know they weren't. Some just refused to see the truth about them and what they taught. The same applies to Jehovah's loyal servants.
LOBT
2007-10-19 11:03:34
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answer #7
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answered by Micah 6
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Because the Trinity is in NO WAY Biblical or accurate.
Meanwhile, you are entitled to your beliefs, or more correctly this websites beliefs, however spamming like this is better for Yahoo! 360.
2007-10-20 04:24:53
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answer #8
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answered by Ish Var Lan Salinger 7
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Jesus never said he was God. who was he praying to? you cannot pray to yourself. Jesus said he can not do anything without the Father in heaven. who resurrected Jesus when he died? you cannot resurrect yourself. the watchtower is just a magazine that we place with neighbors and we read the watchtower on sunday. we only follow the bible, not the watchtower.
2007-10-19 11:01:41
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answer #9
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answered by lover of Jehovah and Jesus 7
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I'm asking the same question.
Edit: this is for MAMAb, only the Jehovah witness bible has that translation, why is it that all other translations don't have the word "a". You change the whole meaning of the verse. Ask for the Holy Spirits guidance and He will unveil your eyes.
2007-10-19 10:40:38
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answer #10
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answered by pattscool 4
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