Lets say you can read in japanese ex. des ka etc... spanish gigante... and german ihre etc(and no one taught you.. you just read it when its put in front of you) ... does that mean you can fluently speak them..
2007-10-19 06:37:24 · 5 answers · asked by prevailed_individual 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
spanish and german - no it means you can read your own alphabet (well done)
japanese kana - someone (even if it was just yourself via a book, etc) has to teach you, but still it will be a while before you're fluent
2007-10-19 06:42:49 · answer #1 · answered by 地獄 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually,
speaking is quite different from reading,
for a foreigner,
speaking is more difficult than reading because if you want to speak fluently, your listening needs to be good first..
2007-10-19 13:59:24 · answer #2 · answered by pearl 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, you can only fluently speak a language if you can converse with another person in that language. I can do the same thing as you, though. It's pretty cool! :)
2007-10-19 13:42:33 · answer #3 · answered by cranberry_spider 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Fluency means that you are able to easily use the language for communication purposes.
2007-10-19 13:51:23 · answer #4 · answered by Diane D. 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope, it just means that you can pronounce these words.
2007-10-19 13:43:06 · answer #5 · answered by Questions 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋